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A capital idea

B-A-C

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Dec 18, 2008
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The letter "S" upper-case and lower-case. Typically this means deity.

I've noticed in the Bible, at least in the New Testament, whenever it talks about men in general it uses "sons of God" (lower case s)
Matt 5:9; Luke 20:36; Rom 8:14; Gal 3:26; etc...
and whenever it talks about Jesus it says "Son of God" (upper case S)
Matt 4:3; Matt 8:29; Luke 1:35; John 3:18; Acts 9:20; 2 Cor 1:19; etc...

I have also notice that whenever it talks about the Spirit of God ( sometimes also called the Holy Spirit ) it always uses an uppercase S.
Matt 1:18; Matt 4:1; Mark 1:8; Luke 1:15; etc...
But whenever it talks about the spirit of man, or an unclean spirit, it always uses a lowercase s.
Matt 5:3; Matt 12:43; Luke 1:47; Luke 4:33; etc...

John 4:24 is an interesting verse when you pay attention to the capitalization.

So what does this have to do with Bible Study? I wonder how many times people have switched the spirit of man with the Spirit of God not knowing the difference?
 
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The letter "S" upper-case and lower-case. Typically this means deity.

I've noticed in the Bible, at least in the New Testament, whenever it talks about men in general it uses "sons of God" (lower case s)
Matt 5:9; Luke 20:36; Rom 8:14; Gal 3:26; etc...
and whenever it talks about Jesus it says "Son of God" (upper case S)
Matt 4:3; Matt 8:29; Luke 1:35; John 3:18; Acts 9:20; 1 Cor 1:19; etc...

I have also notice that whenever it talks about the Spirit of God ( sometimes also called the Holy Spirit ) it always uses an uppercase S.
Matt 1:18; Matt 4:1; Mark 1:8; Luke 1:15; etc...
But whenever it talks about the spirit of man, or an unclean spirit, it always uses a lowercase s.
Matt 5:3; Matt 12:43; Luke 1:47; Luke 4:33; etc...

John 4:24 is an interesting verse when you pay attention to the capitalization.

So what does this have to do with Bible Study? I wonder how many times people have switched the spirit of man with the Spirit of God not knowing the difference?

I believe there is no capitalization in the Greek or Hebrew.. (but experts please correct me), so translators into English had to do the best job they could.. I do believe that there are some errors in our bible versions (especially the KJV).. but also in some instances the spirit of man and the Spirit of God refer to one and the same. If it refers to the spirit of man in general, then capitalization of the 's' is important. But if it refers to the believer's spirit it doesn't really matter. This is because the Spirit of God joins to the believer's human spirit and becomes one spirit: 1 Cor 6:17. So when Paul talks about "walking in the spirit".. actually he is talking about the Spirit of God joined to the spirit of man. Jesus said "I am the vine and you are the branches" John 15:5. If we look at a grape vine there is actually no difference between the vine and the branches. When someone is praying in the Spirit is it the person praying or is it God praying? Actually it is God praying through that person's praying.. so the answer is both. It is correct to say they are praying in the spirit.. or praying in the Spirit.. they both mean the same thing.
 
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There are no errors.

There are plenty errors in KJV.. for example:

Son 2:12 The flowers appear on the earth; the time of the singing of birds is come, and the voice of the turtle is heard in our land;

Voice of the turtle???


Act 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Easter in the New Testament? The correct translation is Passover not Easter. The word Easter comes from the Anglo-Saxon goddess Eostre.
 
Some turtles do in fact have a voice. Easter was the word the KJ translators were familiar with. It is not an error, just a cultural emblem and to them it was referring to the resurrection, not some pagan deity. Words are pictures, or representations of ideas.
 
Some turtles do in fact have a voice. Easter was the word the KJ translators were familiar with. It is not an error, just a cultural emblem and to them it was referring to the resurrection, not some pagan deity. Words are pictures, or representations of ideas.

In other places they correctly translate it (see below), it should be turtledove. Is an error of omission in Son 2:12, Hebrew is same word "tore" in both verses
Psa 74:19 O deliver not the soul of thy turtledove unto the multitude of the wicked: forget not the congregation of thy poor for ever.
 
due diligence is due

There's no excuse for not performing due diligence before we allow our worldly conditioning to kick in which would have us believe that we are the sole arbitors of God's Word, before we would presume to correct God's Word, before we cut-and-paste someone else's ideas as our own...

There are plenty errors in KJV.. for example:

Son 2:12 The flowers appear on the earth; the time of the singing of birds is come, and the voice of the turtle is heard in our land;

Voice of the turtle???

The above conclusion is in error. Here's why:

The turtle is a bird -- not a silent reptile.

Yea, the stork in the heaven knoweth her appointed times; and the turtle and the crane and the swallow observe the time of their coming; but my people know not the judgment of the LORD. (JJJJJeremiah 8:7

Act 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Easter in the New Testament? The correct translation is Passover not Easter. The word Easter comes from the Anglo-Saxon goddess Eostre.

The above conclusion is in error. Here's why:

You may be surprised to know that the word "passover" did not even exist before William Tyndale coined it for his version of 1526-31. His was also the first English Bible to use "Easter." Previosly the Hebrew and Greek were left untranslated. For example, in Wycliffe's Bible, which was based on the Latin, we find pask or paske.

An article which appeared in the Trinitarian Bible Society Quarterly Record states:

When Tyndale applied his talents to the translation of the New Testament from Greek into English, he was not satisfied with the use of a completely foreign word, and decided to take into acount the fact that the season for the passover was known generally to English people as "Easter"...Tyndale has ester or easter fourteen times, ester-lambe eleven times, esterfest once, and paschall lambe three times.

When he began his translation of the Pentateuch, he was again faced with the problem in Exodus 12:11 and twenty-one other places, and no doubt recognising that easter in this context would be an anachronism, he coined a new word, passover and used it consistently in all twenty-two places. It is, therefore, to Tyndale that our language is indebted for this meaningful and appropriate word (date of article unknown).


The English versions after Tyndale followed his example in the Old Testament and increasingly replaced "Easter" with "Passover" in the New Testament. When we come to the Authorized Version, there remained but one instance of the word "Easter" -- Acts 12:4.

It is precisely in this one passge that "Easter" must be used, and the translation "Passover" would have conflicted with the immediate context. In their rush to accuse the Authorized Version of error, many have not taken the time to consider what the passage actually says:

...(Then were the days of unleavened bread.)...intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

To begin with, the Passover occured before the feast of unleavened bread, not after!

And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the Lord. And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten. (Numbers 28"16-17). See also Mark 14:12, i Cor. 5:7-8, etc.

Herod put Peter in prison during the days of unleavened bread , and therefore after the Passover. The argument that the translation "Passover" should have been used as it is intended to refer to the entire period, is ruled out by the inclusion of "these were the days of unleavened bread." Scripture does not use the word "Passover" to refer to the entire period.

Peloubet's Bible Dictionary says:

Strictly speaking the Passover only applied to the paschal supper and the feast of unleavened bread followed (p. 486).

Therrefore, as the Pasover had already been observed, and the days of unleavened bread were in progress, and yet Herod was still waiting for "after pascha;" we can only conclude that the word must be taken in a broader sense. History in fact does indicate a pagan and Christian interchange with the word through the translation "Easter."

A. W. Watts writes:

The Latin and Greek word for Easter is pascha, whic his simply a form of the Hebrew word for passover -- pesach (Easter - Its Story and Meaning, p. 36).

Thus, the word came to be associated with both Christian and pagan observance. And it was to this latter that Herod was referring.

In an excellent study, from which some of the above has been drawn, Raymond Blanton explains (in quotations from Alexander Hislop) that Easter is Ishtar, the queen of heaven and goddess of spring:

The "pascha" that Herod was waiting for was evidently the celebration of the death and resurrection of Tammuz, the Sun god. The sunrise services today are a continuation of that pagan worship.

"...the great annual festival in commemoration of the death and resurrection of Tammuz, which was celebrated by alternate weeping and rejoicing and which, in many countries, was considerably later than the Christian festival, being observed in Palestine and Assyria in June. To conciliate the Pagans to nominal Christianity, Rome, pursuing its usual policy, took measures to get the Christian and Pagan festivals amalgamated, and, by complicated but skillful adjustment of the calendar, it was found no difficult matter, in general, to get Paganism and Christianity - to shake hands." (Alexander Hislop, "The Two Babylons," p. 105).


Continuing his quotation from Hislop, Blanton shows:

The term Easter is of pagan origin -

"It bears its Chaldean origin on its very forehead. Easter is nothing else than Astarte, one of the titles of Beltis, the queen of heaven" (p. 103).

The connection between the word Easter and Tammuz is thus -

The wife of Tammuz was Ishtar (Astarte), who is called Mother Nature, who being refreshed by spring rains brings life. When Tammuz died she followed him into the underworld or realm of Eresh-Kigal, queen of the dead. In her deep grief Astarte persuaded Eresh-Kigal to allow her messenger to sprinkle Astarte and Tammuz with the water of life. By this sprinkling they had power to return into the light of the sun for six months. After which the same cycle must be repeated.

Thus, the goddess of spring or the dawn goddess is resoponsible for the resurrection of Tammuz. Easter is a joint worship of the two. This Satanic myth is interwoven with the sun's cycle of vernal equanox (dawn) and autumn equanox (sunset). (From "The Flaming Torch" Jan. Feb. Mar. 1987).


Dake's Bible adds:

Easter...is derived from Ishtar, one of the Babylonian titles of an idol goddess, the Queen of Heaven. The Saxon goddess Eastre is the same as the Astarte, the Syrian Venus, called Ashtoreth in the O. T. It was the worship of this woman by Israel that was such an abomination to God. (I Sam 7:3l I Ki 11:5, 33 II Ki 23:13; Jer 7:18; 44:18) (p. 137 N. T.).

This was the "pascha" that Herod was waiting for before releasing Peter. As an Edomite, he and his people had a long association with Babylon and her mystery religion (cf. Gen 14:1-4).
 
The Geneva Bible correctly translates it as passover. Other translations followed the Old Saxon pagan word and unfortunately also the KJV.

Clarke's commentary on this verse, highlights, as he puts it, the absurdity of the translation:

"Perhaps there never was a more unhappy, not to say absurd, translation than that in our text. But, before I come to explain the word, it is necessary to observe that our term called Easter is not exactly the same with the Jewish passover. This festival is always held on the fourteenth day of the first vernal full moon; but the Easter of the Christians, never till the next Sabbath after said full moon; and, to avoid all conformity with the Jews in this matter, if the fourteenth day of the first vernal full moon happen on a Sabbath, then the festival of Easter is deferred till the Sabbath following. The first vernal moon is that whose fourteenth day is either on the day of the vernal equinox, or the next fourteenth day after it. The vernal equinox, according to a decree of the council of Nice, is fixed to the 21st day of March; and therefore the first vernal moon is that whose fourteenth day falls upon the 21st of March, or the first fourteenth day after. Hence it appears that the next Sabbath after the fourteenth day of the vernal moon, which is called the Paschal term, is always Easter day. And, therefore, the earliest Paschal term being the 21st of March, the 22d of March is the earliest Easter possible; and the 18th of April being the latest Paschal term, the seventh day after, that is the 25th of April, is the latest Easter possible.The term Easter, inserted here by our translators, they borrowed from the ancient Anglo-Saxon service-books, or from the version of the Gospels, which always translates the το πασχα of the Greek by this term; e.g. Matt 26:2 : Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover. Wite ye that aefter twam dagum beoth Eastro. Matt 16:19: And they made ready the passover. And hig gegearwodon hym Easter thenunga (i.e. the paschal supper.) Prefixed to Matt 28:1, are these words: This part to be read on Easter even. And, before Matt 28:8 these words: Mark 14:12 : And the first day of unleavened bread when they killed the passover. And tham forman daegeazimorum, tha hi Eastron offrodon. Other examples occur in this version. Wiclif used the word paske, i.e. passover; but Tindal, Coverdale, Becke, and Cardmarden, following the old Saxon mode of translation, insert Easter: the Geneva Bible very properly renders it the passover. The Saxon Earten, Eartne, Eartno, Eartna, and Eartnon are different modes of spelling the name of the goddess Easter, whose festival was celebrated by our pagan forefathers on the month of April; hence that month, in the Saxon calendar, is called Easter month. Every view we can take of this subject shows the gross impropriety of retaining a name every way exceptionable, and palpably absurd. "
 
The English versions after Tyndale followed his example in the Old Testament and increasingly replaced "Easter" with "Passover" in the New Testament. When we come to the Authorized Version, there remained but one instance of the word "Easter" -- Acts 12:4.

It is precisely in this one passge that "Easter" must be used, and the translation "Passover" would have conflicted with the immediate context. In their rush to accuse the Authorized Version of error, many have not taken the time to consider what the passage actually says:

...(Then were the days of unleavened bread.)...intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

To begin with, the Passover occured before the feast of unleavened bread, not after!

And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the Lord. And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten. (Numbers 28"16-17). See also Mark 14:12, i Cor. 5:7-8, etc.

Herod put Peter in prison during the days of unleavened bread , and therefore after the Passover. The argument that the translation "Passover" should have been used as it is intended to refer to the entire period, is ruled out by the inclusion of "these were the days of unleavened bread." Scripture does not use the word "Passover" to refer to the entire period.

Context is everything.
 
There's no excuse for not performing due diligence before we allow our worldly conditioning to kick in which would have us believe that we are the sole arbitors of God's Word, before we would presume to correct God's Word, before we cut-and-paste someone else's ideas as our own...

Lets be careful here, you are also using the cut-and-paste method. Everyone does, its shows they did their research and not making stuff up. In any conversation it is better to have resources to back whatever is being said or claimed. Everyone outside the conversation are allowed to read, come to their own conclusions listening to both sides. That's how learning is done. Lets allow everyone to share their views without fear. Allow the conversation to flow.

:dirol:
 
I believe there is no capitalization in the Greek or Hebrew.. (but experts please correct me), so translators into English had to do the best job they could.

but both Hebrew and English have the concept or proper nouns vs improper nouns.

In Hebrews saying james is proper, but in english, it should James (upper case J) because it is a proper noun.
him or he or son or spirit are improper nouns. Son of God, Jesus, God, (as opposed to a god) and Holy Spirit are proper nouns.
 
Yes the ambiguity is unfortunate due to the lack of capitalization (or use of all capitals) in the manuscripts.

This ambiguity is clearly seen in this verse where it is unclear whether it is noun or pronoun:

Gal 5:25 If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.
The capitalization of Spirit is not necessarily inspired but is the opinion of the translators.

There are 3 possible alternatives to this capitalization:
Gal 5:25 If we live in the spirit, let us also walk in the spirit.
Gal 5:25 If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the spirit.
Gal 5:25 If we live in the spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.

I think because Paul is talking about works of the flesh versus works of the spirit.. it should be a lower case 's' referring to the human spirit.

In trying to explain the internal struggle between man's flesh and spirit within him... by capitalization of the S ... somehow the flesh desires against the Holy Spirit, which does not seem right:
Gal 5:17 For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would.
 
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Galatians 5:25
(AMP) If we live by the [Holy] Spirit, let us also walk by the Spirit. [If by the Holy Spirit we have our life in God, let us go forward walking in line, our conduct controlled by the Spirit.]
(ASV) If we live by the Spirit, by the Spirit let us also walk.
(KJV) If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.
(MSG) Since this is the kind of life we have chosen, the life of the Spirit, let us make sure that we do not just hold it as an idea in our heads or a sentiment in our hearts, but work out its implications in every detail of our lives.
(NAS77) If we live by the Spirit, let us also walk by the Spirit.
(NASB) If we live by the Spirit, let us also walk by the Spirit.
(NLT) Since we are living by the Spirit, let us follow the Spirit's leading in every part of our lives.

2 Tim 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;

I think if he can control the rivers, stars, tides, hairs on our head, he can control what goes into his Word.
 
Galatians 5:25
(AMP) If we live by the [Holy] Spirit, let us also walk by the Spirit. [If by the Holy Spirit we have our life in God, let us go forward walking in line, our conduct controlled by the Spirit.]
(ASV) If we live by the Spirit, by the Spirit let us also walk.
(KJV) If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.
(MSG) Since this is the kind of life we have chosen, the life of the Spirit, let us make sure that we do not just hold it as an idea in our heads or a sentiment in our hearts, but work out its implications in every detail of our lives.
(NAS77) If we live by the Spirit, let us also walk by the Spirit.
(NASB) If we live by the Spirit, let us also walk by the Spirit.
(NLT) Since we are living by the Spirit, let us follow the Spirit's leading in every part of our lives.

2 Tim 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;

I think if he can control the rivers, stars, tides, hairs on our head, he can control what goes into his Word.

So what does He do, strike down the translator with leprosy when their pen makes a smudge? Even verse and chapter numberings were created in a haphazard way in a rather rushed process..this is why the division of verses in the bible sometimes makes no sense. If God permits/allows wrong things to be taught by preachers then He is also free to allow wrong things into a bible translation. If the bible translations/versions were perfect.. then there would be no need for multiple revisions.. which has been the case even with the supposedly perfect KJV.

The key is this verse "so that ye cannot do the things that ye would". It is talking about us.. what things prohibit our spirit from doing the things we should do. It is not the Holy Spirit who has the problem here! It is not the Holy Spirit who has the problem and struggle against our human flesh..this makes the Spirit seem rather weak.. it is our human spirit that struggles against our flesh.
 
Context is everything.

So due to your belief in translational perfection, you would support the use of a pagan goddess-derived term in the Bible to refer to the Jewish Passover?.. wow.

Then I suppose you would have to explain why the Geneva bible uses the correct term Passover but KJV does not. If both are the perfect word of god then why are they different? I'm sure God could control which words are used in the bible and ensure that there is consistency between the versions. Only one can be correct...Passover or Easter.. which is it? Why did God allow man to change His Word from Passover (in original manuscript and Geneva bible) to pagan goddess term Easter (KJV)?
 
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So many myths, so little time. LIke the myth of early revisions re: the KJV. They simply parrot what some other man has said.

As per my previous post, one was willing to trash the KJV based solely in his ignorance of the meaning of "dove." Truly, this is the end times.

Folks love to play the scholar. They need latitude to do that. The modern copyrighted "versions" of The Holy Bible allow them that latitude, by design.

So due to your belief in translational perfection, you would support the use of a pagan goddess-derived term in the Bible to refer to the Jewish Passover?.. wow.

Are you capable of extracting the proper conclusion, as it is indicated, from my post?

The issue is not about "translations" per se. Understand God's pattern. God has always given the COMMON man the COMMON bible in the COMMON language of the day to do one thing -- evangelize the world.
 
As per my previous post, one was willing to trash the KJV based solely in his ignorance of the meaning of "dove." Truly, this is the end times.

I think you mean "turtle". In one verse it is correct as turtle-dove, in another, only says turtle. This is error of omission, plain and simple. And then we have the issue of verses and words being added to Gods Word in the KJV at the discretion of the translator... such words are normally italicised in our bibles, but not necessarily..

For example the addition of verse in 1 John 5:7-9 not found in original manuscripts..
A real bible scholar Clarke says:
But it is likely this verse is not genuine. It is wanting in every MS. of this epistle written before the invention of printing, one excepted, the Codex Montfortii, in Trinity College, Dublin: the others which omit this verse amount to one hundred and twelve. It is wanting in both the Syriac, all the Arabic, Ethiopic, the Coptic, Sahidic, Armenian, Slavonian, etc., in a word, in all the ancient versions but the Vulgate; and even of this version many of the most ancient and correct MSS. have it not. It is wanting also in all the ancient Greek fathers; and in most even of the Latin.

So if bible scholars can admit that there are additions and even errors in the KJV, then why cannot we?

But let's not go there for now..

The issue is not about "translations" per se. Understand God's pattern. God has always given the COMMON man the COMMON bible in the COMMON language of the day to do one thing -- evangelize the world.

You seem to be indicating that the KJV used the pagan word Easter for the purpose of Evangelism, as it would be a word easily recognizeable in the English-speaking world. So what other words in the bible should we change to foreign deities to make it more culturally acceptable to the unbelievers? Perhaps if witnessing to muslims we should change the word Passover to Ramadan? The Geneva Bible predates the KJV by what, about 50 years? Yet they use the correct term Passover, without resorting to the pagan word Easter.
 
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I think you mean "turtle". In one verse it is correct as turtle-dove, in another, only says turtle. This is error of omission, plain and simple.

No, I mean exactly what I stated i.e. “dove.” A turtle is a kind of dove, simple. LOL @ “error of omission.”

And then we have the issue of verses and words being added to Gods Word in the KJV at the discretion of the translator... such words are normally italicised in our bibles, but not necessarily..

Tell us what you know about italics. (On second thought, don’t.)

For example the addition of verse in 1 John 5:7-9 not found in original manuscripts..

May we have something from you other than more rhetoric?

A real bible scholar...

...as opposed to a fake one?

So if bible scholars can admit that there are additions and even errors in the KJV, then why cannot we?

The Word tells us many times to trust no man, including so-called “scholars.” It was "scholars" who corrupted the covenant and led many astray (see Malachi).
 
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No, I mean exactly what I stated i.e. “dove.” A turtle is a kind of dove, simple. LOL @ “error of omission.”

It was the meaning of the word "turtle" that was in dispute, the word that is in the KJV.. not the meaning of the word "dove". A turtle-dove is a kind of dove.. but a turtle is a kind of reptile.


Tell us what you know about italics. (On second thought, don’t.)

Italics are words inserted by translators to help us understand the text. But not in original manuscript. Because they are not direct translation from the original.. they are not inspired.


May we have something from you other than more rhetoric?

Yes I quoted Clarke's commentary on the bible and there is dozens more I could quote.

...as opposed to a fake one?

Yes.

The Word tells us many times to trust no man, including so-called “scholars.”

If you cannot trust scholars... how can you trust the KJV translated by scholars?
 
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It was the meaning of the word "turtle" that was in dispute, the word that is in the KJV.. not the meaning of the word "dove". A turtle-dove is a kind of dove.. but a turtle is a kind of reptile.

Again, the meaning of "turtle" is not "in dispute":

turtle = a fowl of the genus Columba; called also the turtle dove and turtle pigeon. It is a wild species, frequenting the thickest parts of the woods, and its note is plainitive and tender. (Webster's American Dictionary of the English Language, 1828).

But not in original manuscript. Because they are not direct translation from the original.. they are not inspired.

The above position seems to be the nexus of two of your major problems with the Word of God, the KJV.

To paraphrase, you believe that only the "original manuscript" is "inspired." And you fail to understand the significance of your uninformed use of the word "original."

The two points will be addressed here.

Point #1 will address your "original manuscript" faux pas. Point #2 will reveal the origin of your "originals only" heresy.

Point #1 - Which 'original manuscript'?

Which “original Greek"? Is it Aleph1, Aleph2, Aleph3, B1, B2, B3, C, L, W, Textus Receptus, Westcott and Hort, Scrivener’s, Alfred, Griesbach, Elzevir, Erasmus, Tischendorf, Lachman, Souter, von Soden, Hodge-Farstad, Nestle’s-Aland (If so which edition between 1 and 26? which printing of the 26th?), USB-Aland, Black, Metzger, Wikgren (Which edition between 1 and 47?), or the Greek-English Diglot for the Use of Translators?

Dear reader, if you are convinced most Christians use a recently published version of the bible, such as the NIV (debuted in 1973), NASB, Living Bible, etc. - what you really mean is - most that you have come in contact with, at your fellowship, in the U.S.A., use it. However, throughout the 2000-year history of the New Testament, people using a text like those of the new versions, were in a mathematically infinitesimal minority. So, if you want to be lined up with most Christians ‘when the saints go marching in’, don’t take a quick spin of the head (like the girl in The Exorcist) to see what’s happening around you. Take a long look back through history and around the world. It is safer.

The survival of ‘the’ original Greek New Testament is a dream which dissolves with the discovery that not all manuscripts and critical editions are alike. Those applying this term to a Greek text on the bookstore shelf or internet site are unacquainted with the volatile state of the text.

There are over 5366 manuscripts of the Greek New Testament. A corrupt few give a view of the text much like a shifting kaleidoscope. They contain several hundred thousand variant readings. In an attempt to marry these ‘moody’ manuscripts, the ‘Wheel of Fortune’ is whirled and readings are selected for inclusion in what scholars call a ‘critical edition of the Greek text.’ There are more than two dozen of these texts, each a ‘prize’ stuffed with between 5000 and 8000 variations. As one scholar puts it, “...equally competent critics often arrive at contrary conclusions as to the same variation.”

The overwhelming majority (over 99%) of these manuscripts, lectionaries and writers agree generally with each other as to the readings of the New Testament. Manuscripts from the second century (P66) down through the Middle Ages (A.D. 1500) attest to the readings of this 'Majority Text', as Kurt Aland terms it. Dean Burgeon, who found this 'MajorityText' in most of the early writers collated, calls it "The Traditional Text.' It is also called the Syrian Text, the Byzantine Text and the K (Kappa) or Common Text.

This text type is available today in English in the Authorized Version, or as it is called in the United States, the King James Version. It's 809,000,000 copies since 1611, in 300 languages, demonstrates the continuum of this 'Majority Text'. {Unfortunately, the new versions are not based on this "Majority Text', but on the dissenting handful of manuscripts which disagree with the Majority).

Best advice: stick with your King James Bible.

Point #2 - Clever Cowards: The Origin of the 'Originals Only' Heresy

Jesus Christ is the target of hatred by this world. His living Spirit-inspired words, which give his express will on this earth, are the bull's eye. Christians who stand with Christ's word at the very bull's eye will not only suffer persecution, but they will also be subject to a constant barrage of attack. The word of God brings the same reproach he bore. His word is the only vestige on earth of Jesus Christ, other than the Holy Ghost and the testimony of born again Christians. Many move slightly off center to avoid the unremitting assault of questioning scribes and mocking bystanders. Those edging away from the bull's eye are still 'for Jesus,' but the desire not to appear "foolish" finds puffed egos seeking ways and means to avoid the "shame" that comes from saying that you have a book in which God actually talks to man (Acts 5:41, Heb 12:2).

The living "powerful" quality of the King James Bible incites sinful men to "mock" and "question" it, just as they did Jesus Christ, the living Word, when he was on earth (Mark 10:34, Matt 22:15, Mark 8:11, et al.). The thought seems to be -- 'Point a finger at it, before it points one back.') The apostles scurried away when Jesus was tried and crucified. When the KJB is likewise tried with accusing questions, even some of the best men scurry under the cover of a Greek text, some lexicon, or the elusive 'originals.'

Calvinists such as Carl Barth (1886-1968) and B. B. Warfield (1851-1921), although defending a semblance of traditional Christianity against German rationalism, were among the first to erect imaginary castles to house the word of God, outside of the tangible 'Holy Bible.' Jesus is the "Word" (capital 'W' John 1:1); the scriptures are the "word" (small 'w'). Carl Barth (and Heinrich Brunner), the fathers of neo-orthodoxy, wrongly claimed that the 'word' of God did not actually exist on earth. To them the Bible was merely a fallible man-made book, speaking of Christ, the Word. Therefore Barth began capitalizing the letter 'W' when he referred to the 'word.' This was just one of many weak 'Christian' accommodations to the 19th century skeptics' claims that the Holy Bible could not stand up under their "science falsely so-called." (Today too many copy his liberal capitalization of the letter 'W' when referring to the 'word,' not knowing the unscriptural character of such a switch.)

Pastors, say, "Open your Bibles to..." Sunday School teachers say, "I hope you all brought your Bibles." There are those, however who say that the 'Bible is inspired,' but actually mean that only the originals or some kind of Greek text is inspired. They are practicing Semler's deceptive theory of accommodation. They are trying to give the impression of orthodoxy to their listeners or readers. When I use the term 'Holy Bible' or 'Bible' I mean what every church-going person means and exactly what their dictionary calls the "Bible" -- "the sacred book of Christianity including the Old and the New Testament." A 'book' is defined by Webster as "a set of written or printed pages fastened on an end and enclosed between protective covers." This describes precisely the Holy Bible Christians read and have in their homes. A 'book' is nowhere identified as 'dissolved animal skins or parchments which have been written on'; neither is a 'Bible' thought of by anyone as a rare and unreadable Greek text. No living person identifies a 'Bible' as any of these things, except perhaps those 'clergy' who, like Humpty Dumpty say, "When I use a word it means just what I choose it to mean." When children and politicians, like Clinton, do this, it is called lying. The new definition and usage of the word 'Bible,' as the lost originals or conflicting Greek and Hebrew manuscripts or editions, is a neologism, that is, "a new meaning for an already established word" (Webster's II New College Dictionary).

The Unabridged 20-volume Oxford English Dictionary defines "Bible" as, "The Scriptures of the Old and New Testament." As such, the verse "All scripture is given by inspiration of God" would mean that the "Bible" "is given by inspiration of God." One merely needs to see the OED to determine that the Bible is scripture and according to the Bible "All scripture is given by inspiration."

B. B. Warfield was one of the first American theologians to declare war on the Holy Bible's inspiration. In the 1800s this American Presbyterian theologian found himself too close to the bull's eye, the Holy Bible. He unwisely positioned himself under a constant barrage of attack when, in 1876, he went to study for a year in Leipzig, Germany under the highest critics, who denied that God had given man the Bible. Warfield brought to Germany a letter of introduction by Philip Schaff, ASV Chairman and organizer, with the Luciferians, of the Parliment of World Religions. Warfield's questionable associations and dead Calvinism left him no match for the twisted German assault on the Bible. There he readily absorbed the 18th century rationalism of German and other 'Enlightenment' philosophers, which exalt human reason and rule out revelation as a source of knowledge (e. g. Descartes, Spinoza, and Leibniz). Compounding this, he was exposed to the modernism of Schleiermacher, Hume, and Kant, which flatly deny any miraculous intervention by God. These philosophers all redirected their 'faith' from faith in the Holy Bible to a faith in man. Such dark naturalistic philosophies have cast a lingering shadow over the miraculous nature of the Holy Bible in the minds of even seminary graduates.

Warfield sought to merge what he learned in Germany with his previous conservatism. On one hand Warfield wrote against the rank unbelief of Briggs, the German higher critic (and author with Brown and Driver of the corrupt English edition of Genenius' Hebrew Lexicon, unwisely used today). However, Warfield could not defend the Bible in hand. He did not have a strong enough background in manuscript evidence or a humble enough faith in the scriptures to counter the barrage of textual variants and 'poblems' thrust at him in the German classroom. He invented a plan whereby he could retain the creed, that stated that 'the Bible' was inspired. He redefined the word 'Bible' for seminary students. He moved the locus of inspiration from the Holy Bible to the lost originals. This "biblical paradigm shift" by B. B. Warfield contravenes every previous belief and church confession (e. g. Turretin c. 1687, Westminster, 1646, London Baptist, 1677 et al.). Warfield could still defend the inspiration of 'the Bible' with vigor, and he did, but he now stated that this inspiration related only to the originals. He was the spokesman for his compromising contemporaries at Princeton who felt that only the originals "were" inspired. A. A. Hodge, son of textual critic Charles Hodge, who himself had studied two years in Germany, had planted the seed in Warfield's mind; Warfield's fellow associates first put this new heresy in print at the Niagara Conference in 1878. Princeton was the first place in history to harbor this particular shift from an inspired Holy Bible in hand to inspired originals, long gone. Warfield used the Westcott and Hort RV; his "heresies" in other areas (Ecumenical Calvinism) reveal that he was not "approved" according to 1 Cor 11:19. Hence his view of inspiration should be rejected.

In order to divest themselves of a living book that contains the words of the Spirit of God, today's liberals have adopted his distinction between the so-0called 'originals' and the word of God extant today in vernacular Holy Bibles. His 'original' idea about the originals has "crept in unaware" into Bible school textbooks and doctrinal statements. It provides a comfortable respite for those who, as Jesus said, are "ashamed of me and my words," when questions arise (Mark 8:38).

Commenting on Warfield's departure from the historic faith is Dr. James Sightler, a medical doctor and son of Dr. Harold Sightler, the famous and now deceased pastor from Greenville, S. C.. Dr. Sightler took the pulse of the King James Bible and determined that it was alive. His booklet Lively Oracles is his dissertation on the inspiration of the KJB. In his earlier classic, A Testimony Founded Forever, Dr. James Sightler writes,

"It has been stated by Sandeen that the Princeton Theologians Archibald Alexander Hodge and Benjamin Breckenridge Warfield, in 1881, were the first to claim inspiration for the original autographs only and to exchange the doctrine of providential preservation for restoration of the text by critics. This shift was accompanied by a change from reliance on internal verification of the scripture by the witness of the spirit and the structural integrity of the entire Bible to reliance on external evidences. Actually it was Warfield's teacher and predecessor at Princeton, Charles Hodge, father of A. A. Hodge, who was the first to take up naturalistic text criticism and abandon the doctrine of providential preservation. It should also be remembered that the Niagara Creed of 1878, adopted at the Niagara Conference on Prophecy, which was dominated by a coalition of Princeton graduates and followers of J. N. Darby, may well have been the first document to claim inspiration for every word of scripture "provided such word is found in the original manuscripts"" (emphasis mine; See Ernest R. Sandeen, The Roots of Fundamentalism, Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House 1970, pp. 103-131 as cited by James Sightler, A Testimony Founded Forever, Greenville, SC: Sightler Publications, 2001, pp. 31, 32 et al.; Sightler's book gives an entire chapter which documents Warfield's heretical shift. John Asquith has written a book entitled Further Thoughts on the Word of God: Defending the Inspiration of the AV 1611, which I also recommend.)

Dr. Gary La More of Canada wrote an entire paper detailing Warfield's cowardly retreat,

"Having been encouraged by A. A. Hodge to defend the Princeton view of verbal inspiration against an attack by the critical theories of Charles A. Briggs, Warfield found himself on the horns of a dilemma...Warfield's solution was to shift his doctrine of inerrancy to include only the original autographa; no longer holding to the belief in the inerrancy of the Bible of the Reformers, the Traditional Text. Thus he moved that if the locus of providence were now centered in restoration via "Enlightenment" textual criticism, rather than preservation of the traditinal texts, then we need not concern ourselves with the criticism lodged at the text of Scripture presently (and historically!) used in the Church" (Gary La More, B. B. Warfield and His Followers, Scarborough, Ontario, Canada: Grace Missionary Baptist Church, 2007, pp. 27-28).

Warfield accommodated the Bible to modern scientific rationalism, empiricism, and naturalism. Like doubting Thomas, Warfield must see it, not just believe it. Many were drawn to his naturalistic idea because they did not know how to defend their Bibles from the barrage of questions arising out of Germany. As La More observed, Warfield's accommodation is a comfortable resort today for those who cannot answer questions about why the KJB reads as it does and do not want to appear "foolish." It is frightening to think that a non-soul-winning German-trained Calvinist is dictating from the grave his originals-only theory of inspiration to those who disavow many of his other beliefs and practices. Warfield's inspired 'originals only' still stains many churches; 'Statement of Faith.' The churches who have such statements think that their creed is orthodox and have no knowledge if its heterodox origin. They do not realize that it was merly an accommodation to the infidels of Germany who found imaginary faults in the Bible.

Warfield's invention has darkened the sense and spread a faltering faith to even good Christians such as John Burgon, Edward Hills, and their modern day proponents, some of whom have cowered and acquiesced to alleged spots or conceivable future updates or improvement to the KJB. These men have become rationalists, naturalists and modernists in practice by exalting man's role in the transmission of the Bible and denying the miraculous intervention of God. The Bible says. "Thou shalt preserve them..." It is his work. What shall he preserve? He shall preserve his words -- not replce them with men's words. Unwittingly, they have in a sense adopted the neo-orthodox position that the Bible (that we have) only contains God's message (but accurately translated by men into English).

To them Bibles are no longer God's own English words. Remember, he said "I speak" "other tongues." Practically speaking they have adopted the same view as those who create and use modern versions, who say that the Bible was inspired only in the originals and consequently they are free to reconstitute it themselves according to rationalistic methods. There is not a lot of difference (in presumption, not text) between men making NIVs and men making the 'updated' KJV Easy-Reader or KJV Evidence Bible (Ray Comfort). Is the Holy Bible God's words or man's? There is no middle ground. The title even says 'Holy' Bible. Since when can unholy men make a wholly holy book?

Another author observes,

"Throughout the twentieth century, a view of inspiration gained ascendancy among evangelicals and many fundamentalists that marked a departure from that which was previously confessed by believers since New Testament days...Recent scholarship has shown that men like Princeton professor Benjamin Warfield (1851-1921) were not as committed to the Biblical doctrine of verbal inspiration as we are sometimes led to believe. Thinking to answer rationalist theologians on their own ground and legitimize textual studies, these men began to suggest that only the autographs (originals) were inspired; apographs (copies) were not. For this reason many of the Statements of Faith issued by various bodies now speak of the Scriptures being inspired 'as originally given' whereas before this time the conviction was that inspired Scripture was preserved in the copies. All this took place almost unnoticed, but we are being asked to swallow a real whopper! The apostle Paul is right, "Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools" (Romans 1:22).

What this means is that as the originals have long since turned to dust, no inspired text exists today...Warfield's book on biblical inspiration is still hailed as a 'classic,' but his viewpoint has done more to undermine confidence in Scripture than almost any other in the last 150 years or so." (David W. Norris, The Big Picture, pp. 295-296 as cited in La More, pp. 20-21).

Warfield fought higher criticism, but adopted lower criticism, which is the rationalistic belief that the inspired originals had been lost for a millennium and a half and could be reconstructed by Westcott, Hort, and Schaff on the RV and ASV committees. Warfield said Westcott and Hort "furnish us for the first time with a really scientific method" which "will meet with speedy universal acceptance" (as cited in La More, note 13 pp. 17, 27, et al.; also see Mark A. Noll, Between Faith and Criticism, 2nd ed., Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1991).

In 1886 Warfield wrote the first book in America promoting textual criticism (Introduction to the Textual Criticism of the New Testament). Calhoun's history of Princeton says, "His positive attitude toward textual criticism influenced many to appreciate the science and to value the new translations of the Bible [RV and ASV]..." (David Calhoun, Princeton Seminary, Vol. 2, "The Majectic Testimony 1869-1929," pp. 113-115) Schaff invited Warfield to contribute his Hortian views on manuscript genealogy to his heretical Companion to the Greek Testament and English Version. Sightler says, "Westcott, Hort, Schaff, and Warfield...all knew that Griesbach openly denied the Diety of Christ, and yet they followed his methods in preference to those of Frederick Nolan, who was a believer. They reasoned in circular fashion that the best readings were in codices B and Aleph, therefore B and Aleph gave the best textual evidence [Vaticanus and Sinaiticus]" (Sightler, p. 31).

Benjamin Breckinridge Warfield should have followed in his maternal grandfather and namesake's footsteps. Robert Breckenridge was a lawyer and Presbyterian minister who single-handedly stopped the wavering American Bible Society from printing their own revised version of the KJB thirty years before the RV. This version was edited and corrupted by men including John McClintock (of McClintock and (James) Strong's Cyclopedia of Biblical, Theological, and Ecclesiastical Literature). This version omitted such important doctrines as, "God was manifest in the flesh" (Sightler, p. 35).

Each generation must remember that --

"With the ancient is wisdom; and in length of days understanding" (Job 12:12)

"...ask for the old paths, where is the good way, and walk therein, and ye shall find rest for your souls. But they say, We will not walk therein." (Jer 6:16)

The Holy Bible has always been recognized as the locus of inspiration, that is, until the Egyptian locusts saw its fruiitful boughs and swarmed to consume it.
 
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