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It;s a well known fact, that many Bible passages have parenthesis in them.
John 7:50;
(KJV) Nicodemus saith unto them, (he that came to Jesus by night, being one of them,)
(MKJV) Nicodemus said to them, (he who came to Jesus by night, being one of them),
(NAS77) Nicodemus *said to them (he who came to Him before, being one of them),
(NAS95) Nicodemus (he who came to Him before, being one of them) *said to them,
All Bible do not do this. The NIV and NIrV for example, do not add the parenthesis.
(NIrV) Then Nicodemus, a Pharisee, spoke. He was the one who had gone to Jesus earlier. He asked,
(NIV) Nicodemus, who had gone to Jesus earlier and who was one of their own number, asked,
Typically anything in parenthesis, mean it is not in the original Hebrew of Greek manuscripts.
The translators added these word for clarity.
So then, who is right? In this particular case, the NIV and NIrV would be wrong, as (he was one of them) is not in the original Greek manuscripts.
But it isn't just the NIV that does this, many Bible transaltions do this do some varying extent.
1 John 5:7;
(KJV) For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
(MKJV) For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one.
(NAS77) And it is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
(NAS95) For there are three that testify:
Again the words "the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost" are not in the original Greek texts, but are added in the King James variants.
The use of italicized text was first seen in the Geneva Bible in 1560. This is sometime used to specify words that were not in the original texts.
Sometimes color alone is used to acheive the same purpose.
(CSB) When Jesus told them, “I am he,” they stepped back and fell to the ground.
(ESV) When Jesus said to them, “I am he,” they drew back and fell to the ground.
(HCSB) When He told them, "I am He," they stepped back and fell to the ground.
(ISV) When Jesus told them, "I AM," they backed away and fell to the ground.
(KJV) As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground.
(MKJV) Then as soon as He had said to them, I AM, they went backward and fell to the ground.
(NAS77) When therefore He said to them, "I am He," they drew back, and fell to the ground.
(NAS95) So when He said to them, "I am He," they drew back and fell to the ground.
(NIV) When Jesus said, "I am he," they drew back and fell to the ground.
(NKJV) Now when He said to them, "I am He," they drew back and fell to the ground.
Some transaltions say "I am He", some simply say "I am", and some say "I am He", but only "I am" is colored red, and the "he" is left in black text.
So who is right here? Again the original texts only say "I am", none say 'I am "He"'.
Now why do some Bibles do this? No doubt some of this is purely for clarity reasons, but it seems as more and more Bible translations have appeared,
it has become more and more common place, and now it is getting difficult to know what was in the original texts, and what wasn't.
I will pick on the NIV again here. The following verses are missing form the NIV BIble.
So, what the difference? One set is older, but there are much fewer surviving copies. These are found closer to Jerusalem.
The other set has many more surviving copies, but they aren't quite as old, and they are generally found further from Jerusalem.
The Textus Receptus, which the King James Bible was based on, is itself based on the Byzantine texts.
How do we know which is more accurate? That is still a subject of much debate and has been over the last 2,000 years.
But keep in mind, even with missing verses above. Most mainstream Bibles are still 99.99% the same.
The Bible contains 31,102 verses when all Old and New Testament books are combined. Specifically, the Old Testament has 23,145 verses, while the New Testament has 7,957 verses
So, if 15 verses are missing, that's less than .001 % There are some newer Bible out now that go a whole direction. There are "Gay Bibles" "Non-Gender Bibles", and Bible that deliberately add, delete and
change certain texts to spin a particular doctrine.
The Jehovah's Witnesses use the "New World Translation". It has words added that are not in the mainstream Bibles.
The NLT Bible is missing a couple of verses as well. Matt 17:21; and Matt 18:11;
All of this to say, be careful what verse you build a doctrine on. Some Bible have verses not found in either the oldest or the majority texts.
But some change the text accordingly, the NLT for example...
(NLT)
Eph 4:8 That is why the Scriptures say, “When he ascended to the heights, he led a crowd of captives and gave gifts to his people.”
Eph 4:9 Notice that it says “he ascended.” This clearly means that Christ also descended to our lowly world.
(KJV)
Eph 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
Eph 4:9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
One versions seems to say that Jesus descended into hell, the other version simply says Jesus descended to the Earth. However that version puts the text in parenthesis.
Some will take a post like this to say the Bible is wrong or inconsistent, I disagree, I believe the Bible, and I believe it to be accurate.
But there are differences.
John 7:50;
(KJV) Nicodemus saith unto them, (he that came to Jesus by night, being one of them,)
(MKJV) Nicodemus said to them, (he who came to Jesus by night, being one of them),
(NAS77) Nicodemus *said to them (he who came to Him before, being one of them),
(NAS95) Nicodemus (he who came to Him before, being one of them) *said to them,
All Bible do not do this. The NIV and NIrV for example, do not add the parenthesis.
(NIrV) Then Nicodemus, a Pharisee, spoke. He was the one who had gone to Jesus earlier. He asked,
(NIV) Nicodemus, who had gone to Jesus earlier and who was one of their own number, asked,
Typically anything in parenthesis, mean it is not in the original Hebrew of Greek manuscripts.
The translators added these word for clarity.
So then, who is right? In this particular case, the NIV and NIrV would be wrong, as (he was one of them) is not in the original Greek manuscripts.
But it isn't just the NIV that does this, many Bible transaltions do this do some varying extent.
1 John 5:7;
(KJV) For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
(MKJV) For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one.
(NAS77) And it is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth.
(NAS95) For there are three that testify:
Again the words "the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost" are not in the original Greek texts, but are added in the King James variants.
The use of italicized text was first seen in the Geneva Bible in 1560. This is sometime used to specify words that were not in the original texts.
Sometimes color alone is used to acheive the same purpose.
(CSB) When Jesus told them, “I am he,” they stepped back and fell to the ground.
(ESV) When Jesus said to them, “I am he,” they drew back and fell to the ground.
(HCSB) When He told them, "I am He," they stepped back and fell to the ground.
(ISV) When Jesus told them, "I AM," they backed away and fell to the ground.
(KJV) As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground.
(MKJV) Then as soon as He had said to them, I AM, they went backward and fell to the ground.
(NAS77) When therefore He said to them, "I am He," they drew back, and fell to the ground.
(NAS95) So when He said to them, "I am He," they drew back and fell to the ground.
(NIV) When Jesus said, "I am he," they drew back and fell to the ground.
(NKJV) Now when He said to them, "I am He," they drew back and fell to the ground.
Some transaltions say "I am He", some simply say "I am", and some say "I am He", but only "I am" is colored red, and the "he" is left in black text.
So who is right here? Again the original texts only say "I am", none say 'I am "He"'.
Now why do some Bibles do this? No doubt some of this is purely for clarity reasons, but it seems as more and more Bible translations have appeared,
it has become more and more common place, and now it is getting difficult to know what was in the original texts, and what wasn't.
I will pick on the NIV again here. The following verses are missing form the NIV BIble.
- Matthew 23:14
- Matthew 17:21
- Matthew 18:11
- Mark 7:16
- Mark 9:44
- Mark 9:46
- Mark 11:26
- Mark 15:28
- Luke 17:36
- John 5:4
- Acts 8:37
- Acts 15:34
- Acts 24:7
- Acts 28:29
- Romans 16:24
So, what the difference? One set is older, but there are much fewer surviving copies. These are found closer to Jerusalem.
The other set has many more surviving copies, but they aren't quite as old, and they are generally found further from Jerusalem.
The Textus Receptus, which the King James Bible was based on, is itself based on the Byzantine texts.
How do we know which is more accurate? That is still a subject of much debate and has been over the last 2,000 years.
But keep in mind, even with missing verses above. Most mainstream Bibles are still 99.99% the same.
The Bible contains 31,102 verses when all Old and New Testament books are combined. Specifically, the Old Testament has 23,145 verses, while the New Testament has 7,957 verses
So, if 15 verses are missing, that's less than .001 % There are some newer Bible out now that go a whole direction. There are "Gay Bibles" "Non-Gender Bibles", and Bible that deliberately add, delete and
change certain texts to spin a particular doctrine.
The Jehovah's Witnesses use the "New World Translation". It has words added that are not in the mainstream Bibles.
The NLT Bible is missing a couple of verses as well. Matt 17:21; and Matt 18:11;
All of this to say, be careful what verse you build a doctrine on. Some Bible have verses not found in either the oldest or the majority texts.
But some change the text accordingly, the NLT for example...
(NLT)
Eph 4:8 That is why the Scriptures say, “When he ascended to the heights, he led a crowd of captives and gave gifts to his people.”
Eph 4:9 Notice that it says “he ascended.” This clearly means that Christ also descended to our lowly world.
(KJV)
Eph 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
Eph 4:9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
One versions seems to say that Jesus descended into hell, the other version simply says Jesus descended to the Earth. However that version puts the text in parenthesis.
Some will take a post like this to say the Bible is wrong or inconsistent, I disagree, I believe the Bible, and I believe it to be accurate.
But there are differences.