See, this is an issue that has been paramount with the interpretation and application of principles; what man that has not learned Words can learn the principles which are set forth in the scriptures by and through Words? Otherwise, the scriptures are like an ancient text which no man can decipher. I must acknowledge first that even the wisest of men can be a fool, and that a fool
as he is seen may be subject more to public opinion than actual principle. What this means is that the wise may actually be a fool, and the fool may actually be wise--how ought we to know, except we were either ourselves, and then how ought we understand, except we knew the principle and context upon which the determination was decreed? Surely enough, even a book that isn't written in ancient hieroglyphs but in the very language we speak and know can still be as an ancient text which none could decipher--how? Words that are Spirit must be observed by Spirit and given life through Spirit otherwise it is as ink on paper.
Jesus spoke in parables but the truth is that His parables spoke plainly:
If anyone claims to be in the light but hates his brother, he is still in the darkness. 10Whoever loves his brother remains in the light, and there is no cause of stumbling in him. 11But whoever hates his brother is in the darkness and walks in the darkness. He does not know where he is going, because the darkness has blinded his eyes.…
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just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life as a ransom for many.
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For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.
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"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them
but to fulfill them."
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Jesus declared, ‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ 38
This is the first and greatest commandment.
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39
And the second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’
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40All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments.
What does it mean to fulfill the Law and the Prophets?
What did Jesus do?
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"You have heard that it was said, 'You shall not commit adultery.'
But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Superb. Jesus not only kept the first law, but he
magnified (increased the conditions to fulfill it) it
and made it holy (perfect in righteousness). So the first Law was outward; 'Do not sleep with another woman except your own Wife.' Now, the same Law which was outward also became inward; 'If you look on at another woman than your own wife and lust for her, you have committed adultery already.'
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8 Let no debt remain outstanding, except the continuing debt to love one another, for whoever loves others has fulfilled the law. 9 The commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not covet,”[a] and whatever other command there may be, are summed up in this one command: “Love your neighbor as yourself.”[b] 10 Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.
Sure enough, the Bible does not actually support 'slavery' as the horrendous and heinous bondage and vile captivity we've observed in history--those passages which men used to justify an ill and wicked practice were actually their own erroneous stipulations of scriptures and not actual truth, and for such ignorance the whole of the prophets and the law became as the words of a sealed book to them.
Exodus 21:16
16 And he that stealeth a man, and selleth him, or if he be found in his hand, he shall surely be put to death.
Leviticus 25:39
39
If a countryman among you becomes destitute and sells himself to you, then you must not force him into slave labor.40Let him stay with you as a hired worker or temporary resident; he is to work for you until the Year of Jubilee.…
Leviticus 25:48
47If a foreigner residing among you prospers, but your countryman dwelling near him becomes destitute and sells himself to the foreigner or to a member of his clan, 48
he retains the right of redemption after he has sold himself. One of his brothers may redeem him:49either his uncle or cousin or any close relative from his clan may redeem him. Or if he prospers, he may redeem himself.…
Exodus 21
2 “If you buy a Hebrew servant, he is to serve you for six years. But in the seventh year, he shall go free, without paying anything. 3 If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him. 4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free.
5 “But if the servant declares, ‘I love my master and my wife and children and do not want to go free,’ 6 then his master must take him before the judges.[
a] He shall take him to the door or the doorpost and pierce his ear with an awl. Then he will be his servant for life.
7 “If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as male servants do. 8 If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself,[
b]
he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. 9 If he selects her for his son,
he must grant her the rights of a daughter. 10 If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. 11 If he does not provide her with these three things,
she is to go free, without any payment of money.
Deuteronomy 23:15-16
15 If a slave has taken refuge with you, do not hand them over to their master. 16 Let them live among you wherever they like and in whatever town they choose. Do not oppress them.
Lev 25:35–37
35 “If your brother becomes poor and cannot maintain himself with you, you shall support him as though he were a stranger and a sojourner, and he shall live with you. 36 Take no interest from him or profit, but fear your God, that your brother may live beside you. 37 You shall not lend him your money at interest, nor give him your food for profit.
I thank God for this conversation, which has given me enlightenment into a significant issue of controversy which is used to falsely debase the scriptures and The LORD with a clear answer: 'slaves' and 'bond-servants' are COMPLETELY different.
WHOEVER DECIDED TO REPLACE THE WORD '
SERVANT' WITH THE WORD '
SLAVE' CHANGED THE SCRIPTURES TO
SOMETHING EVIL BY NOT TRANSLATING CORRECTLY (EITHER FOR ILLICIT REASON OR FOR LACK OF UNDERSTANDING).
The original Word, and context, and meaning of passages observing servitude were in the context, intent, and purpose of 'servants by means of' and 'in servitude.'
Servant:
a person who performs duties for others, especially a person employed in a house on domestic duties or as a personal attendant.
Slave:
a person who is the legal property of another and is forced to obey them.
How awful, we have Bibles circulating right now that are using words with meanings which are similar in context but
completely out of context and have deviated from the original meaning, and I presume that it was the same in the days where americans owned slaves--it is unlikely that even ten people had a comprehensive understanding of all of the scripture in all of america during those days, even as it is today. If somebody said then that the correct context and word was actually 'servant' and not 'slave,' they might have been outcast by many christians even though the outcasting would be against the principles of the Holy Ghost.