Esther said that she would fast for 3 days, night or day, and that after doing that, that she would go to the king. However, verse 5:1 says that she went to the king on the 3rd day. How can she go to the king on the 3rd day and at the same time go after the 3rd day?
Discrepancy between Esther 4:16 and 5:1?
- Thread starter rstrats
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No discrepancy. The Scripture says "on the third day." These are 3 days, 24 hour days of fasting covering 4 days.
For example, let's say she began her fasting on a Monday at noon. Three days and 3 nights would end on a Thursday at noon.
"On the third day" is Thursday afternoon when see went to see the king, and it was still the third day of her fasting based on 3, 24 hour days, but was 4 days later in real time.
"On the third day" is based on the time of fasting not the literal days that passed.
So you're saying that it doesn't mean three calendar days, but rather three 24 hour periods beginning at noon.
That won't work, though, because there would be portions of four light periods involved.
Esther 5:1
"Now it came to pass on the third day (THE THIRD DAY OF THE FAST FROM NOON TILL NOON / in our example / Thursday ), that Esther put on her royal apparel, and stood in the inner court of the king's house, over against the king's house: and the king sat upon his royal throne in the royal house, over against the gate of the house.
As soon as the 3 days and 3 nights of fasting were completed at noon (on the third day of fasting) she went to see the king.
It must be seen as 3 days of fasting, not calendar days as you pointed out.
Under your noon scenario, I think you mean three 24hour periods of fasting. And after that, she wouldn't be going to the king on the third period but on a fourth period which began at noon.
Make of it what you will, it's clear to me there is no discrepancy.
Please tell me what is incorrect with my post #6?
Bill Taylor
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You have preset your mind to reject any explanation. He has pointed out the clear teaching of the Spirit, are you indwelt?
How is asking what is incorrect about my post rejecting an explanation?
Bill Taylor
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Charlie has given you the correct answer but you reject the answer given because of Holy Spirit instruction. That begs me to ask the logical question I wish not to ask.
Because it appears that portions of 4 different light periods would be involved with his example.
Bill Taylor
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Do you know the clock times, because without knowing which side of 6 pm these incidents occurred you have nothing more than one baseless assertion? The day or week will also bear on the credibility.
His example started at noon on Monday and ended at noon on Thursday. That period of time includes 4 light portions. I don't see how knowing which side of 6 pm comes in there?
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15Then Esther bade them return Mordecai this answer, 16Go, gather together all the Jews that are present in Shushan, and fast ye for me, and neither eat nor drink three days, night or day: I also and my maidens will fast likewise; and so will I go in unto the king, which is not according to the law: and if I perish, I perish. 17So Mordecai went his way, and did according to all that Esther had commanded him.
1 Now it came to pass on the third day, that Esther put on her royal apparel, and stood in the inner court of the king's house, over against the king's house: and the king sat upon his royal throne in the royal house, over against the gate of the house.
Esther4:15 - 5:1
1 Now it came to pass on the third day, that Esther put on her royal apparel, and stood in the inner court of the king's house, over against the king's house: and the king sat upon his royal throne in the royal house, over against the gate of the house.
Esther4:15 - 5:1
NCB - "After that, I will go to the king.."
NET - "Afterward I will go to the king..."
NIV - "When this is done, I will go to the king..."
While my comment was not the exact same phrase, I took those 3 phrases to mean what I wrote. To what do you think they are referring?
So, if the fast was still going on, to what was the "that" of the phrase "after that" referring?
