tulsa 2011
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I Peter 5: 2-3 and the Redefinition of the Ekklesia,the Ecclesia and the Churche
In his 1525 translation of the Greek Textus Receptus of Erasmus, William Tyndale translated ekklesia as congregation except for Acts 14: 13 and Acts 19: 37 where he used churche, meaning a pagan place of worship. But John Wyclife, who translated the first Bible into English in 1382 from the Latin Vulgate, used chirche (old English spelling) for ecclesia.
See: http://www.reformed.org/documents/in...va/Geneva.html
On the creation of the 1560 Geneva Bible the site above says "The new translation was checked with Theodore Beza's earlier work and the Greek text. In 1560 a complete revised Bible was published, translated according to the Hebrew and Greek..."
See: http://www.christianassemblies.co/in...icle&article=1
"The word "church" was first used by Theodore Beza in 1556, a Protestant, who followed John Calvin at Geneva, Switzerland. As a Presbyterian, Beza believed in the idea of a catholic church and its hierarchical form of government and therefore chose to support this false concept by using the word "church" instead of "assembly." The reason is obvious in that the use of the word "congregation" or "assembly" would not support his church's hierarchical form of church government. William Whittingham's Testament of 1557 followed Beza's usage of "church" and was actually the first edition of the Geneva Bible and was a revision of the Tyndale New Testament."
Any doctrine is established by the original meaning of the Hebrew or Greek words used to express that doctrine. A translation into English should not change that doctrine. Strong's Exhaustive Concordance defines ekklesia, number 1577, as "a calling out, i.e. (to) a populkar meeting, especially a religious congregation..."
See: http://www.acu.edu/sponsored/restora...ents/ward.html
"The most common classical usage of ekklesia and its cognates was as a political term, meaning an assembly of citizens. In the Greek city-state the citizens were called forth by the trumpet of the kerux (herald) summoning them to the ekklesia (assembly)."
But did the English word chirche, churche, circe, kirk, etc mean?
Here is the link to the definition of church in the Oxford English Dictionary is: Y: The English word "CHURCH" comes from CIRCE!! - §1. ÊÎÍÑÈËÈÓÌ
"CHURCH: FORMS: (a) cirice, cyrice, chiriche, churiche, chereche, (b) CIRCE, cyrce, chyrce, cirke, etc. "The ulterior derivation has been keenly disputed. The L. circus, and a Gothic word kйlikn 'tower, upper chamber' (app. originally
Gaulish) have both been proposed (the latter suggested by the Alemannic chilihha), but are set aside as untenable; and there is now a general
agreement among scholars in referring it to the Greek word, properly kurion adj. 'of the Lord, dominicum, dominical' (f. Kurios lord), which
occurs, from the 3rd century at least, used substantively (sc. doma, or the like) = 'house of the Lord', as a name of the Christian house of
worship.....CIRCE was a Greek goddess who turned men into PIGS!!"
The Oxford English Dictionary mentions the Greek goddess circe, and also says in caps in its list of spellings of church, the word CIRCE.
The old English word circe, chirche, kirk or churche is said to have meant the house of a lord, a place of pagan worship, or circe, the Greek goddness. But circe, or churche was redefined by the clergy. Neither churche as a house of a pagan lord or circe as the Greek goddess have the same meaning as the Greek word ekklesia.
Why was the church redefined, and what did it come to mean?
I Peter 5: 2-3 says "Feed the flock of God which is among you, taking the oversight thereof, not by constraint, but willingly; not for filthy lucre, but of a ready mind;
3. Neither as being lords over God's heritage, but being ensamples to the flock."
I Peter 5:2-3 says that what we call priests and preachers are to feed God's people, but they are not to constrain the people of God, are not to make money from feeding the people of God, and are not to be lords over them. This identifies how the priests and hierarchy of the Roman Catholic Church redefined the ekklesia (Greek), the Ecclesia (Latin) and the churche (early English) so that the priests and religious hierarchy could rule over the people. The ekklesia (Greek) is just a meeting,assembly,gathering or congregation of God's people, his elect plus some who are beginning to become interested. The ekklesia is not a proper noun; it is a common noun. The Ecclesia and the Churche were made into proper nouns,and into a man-made organization to be ruled by the clergy class.
Then III John 1: 9-10 says "I wrote unto the church: but Diotrephes, who loveth to have the preeminence among them, receiveth us not. Wherefore, if I come, I will remember his deeds which he doeth, prating against us with malicious words: and not content therewith, neither doth he himself receive the brethren, and forbiddeth them that would, and casteth them out of the church." Since Diotrephes is said to have cast people out of the ekklesia - the assembly - he must have been a church authority of some kind. This guy who apparently was in some kind of authority over an assembly of Christians would not receive the apostle John.
When Theodore Beza, an early Calvinist, supported the burning of the anti-Trinitarian Michael Servetus (died 1553), he showed his view that the Churche should be an organization which rules over men. Beza, contrary to I Peter 5: 2-3 had the Calvinist Churche rule by constraint and to lord it over the people.
Beza emphasized the authority of the church and of the ordained clergy more than did Calvin. Encyclopædia Britannica at http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/.../Theodore-Beza says "In most matters, he reiterated Calvin’s views, though with greater stress on ecclesiastical discipline and rigid obedience to authority."
In 1565 Beza published his Greek New Testament, in which he translated ekklesia as church. The English protestants who were in Geneva to escape from the Catholic Queen Bloody Mary were influenced by Beza and translated ekklesia consistently as church.
It is interesting that the Geneva Bible translates ekklesia correctly in Acts 9: 39, saying "But if ye enquire any thing concerning other matters, it shall be determined in a lawful assembly." The King James also has assembly for ekklesia in Acts 9: 39. What is the contextual or grammatical reason to translate ekklesia as assembly in Acts 9: 39 and in all other verses as word church?
According to James Baikie in his book, The English Bible Its Story,Lippincott: Philadelphia, 1928, pp. 273-74, the old ecclesiastical words were to be kept in the KJV translation, which meant that church was not to be translated as congregation.
The words assembly or congregation do not support the hierarchical form of church government that the Roman Catholic, Anglican and Calvinist churches had set up, and which has been followed since the Reformation..
In Revelation 9: 5, 15,18, 19 the locust-scorpions do not have the power to kill, but the serpents are given the power to kill. In Revelation 9:15-19 the serpents are given power to kill. The serpents, who in Matthew 23: 33 are the Pharisees,are said here to kill with what comes out of their mouths,and so this killing is metaphoric. Their spiritual life is killed. But in that which is spiritual, death of the spiritual is most important.
Since the serpent-Pharisees are given power to kill the spiritual life, we can see that those with the serpent spirit might also want the power to physically kill those who disagree with them. But Christ came to bring life (John 10: 19),and in Luke 9: 54,when James and John wanted to call fire down from heaven to kill a village that rejected Jesus, Christ said "Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of. For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them."
The meeting, assembly, gathering or congregation was not given the power, as I Peter 5:2-3 says, to constrain,and lord it over its members. Therefore,no ruling elite is authorized by scripture to have authority beyond feeding the group the truth, especially not the power to physically kill as Theodore Beza thought the Church had. So, I Peter 5:2-3 is relevant to the identify issue of what and who are the elect in Christ,and of the issue of the Church replacing physical Israel.
The modern day Pharisee types teach scripture in a compartmentalized way, so that only one verse or strand of scripture is viewed at a time - because this compartmentalization makes it easier to teach the traditions of men (Matthew 15:3, 6, Mark 7:8). Teaching more than one verse at a time can invite people to interpret scripture by scripture, and the Pharisees do not want that to be done.
Since the serpents, who are the Pharisee types, believe they rule over the people of God, then these are the people who redefined the meaning of the ekklesia, the Ecclesia and the churche to make the assembly into the Body of Christ, the elect, and Sion as an organization of man, so that the Pharisee types could rule over this redefined Churche.
In his 1525 translation of the Greek Textus Receptus of Erasmus, William Tyndale translated ekklesia as congregation except for Acts 14: 13 and Acts 19: 37 where he used churche, meaning a pagan place of worship. But John Wyclife, who translated the first Bible into English in 1382 from the Latin Vulgate, used chirche (old English spelling) for ecclesia.
See: http://www.reformed.org/documents/in...va/Geneva.html
On the creation of the 1560 Geneva Bible the site above says "The new translation was checked with Theodore Beza's earlier work and the Greek text. In 1560 a complete revised Bible was published, translated according to the Hebrew and Greek..."
See: http://www.christianassemblies.co/in...icle&article=1
"The word "church" was first used by Theodore Beza in 1556, a Protestant, who followed John Calvin at Geneva, Switzerland. As a Presbyterian, Beza believed in the idea of a catholic church and its hierarchical form of government and therefore chose to support this false concept by using the word "church" instead of "assembly." The reason is obvious in that the use of the word "congregation" or "assembly" would not support his church's hierarchical form of church government. William Whittingham's Testament of 1557 followed Beza's usage of "church" and was actually the first edition of the Geneva Bible and was a revision of the Tyndale New Testament."
Any doctrine is established by the original meaning of the Hebrew or Greek words used to express that doctrine. A translation into English should not change that doctrine. Strong's Exhaustive Concordance defines ekklesia, number 1577, as "a calling out, i.e. (to) a populkar meeting, especially a religious congregation..."
See: http://www.acu.edu/sponsored/restora...ents/ward.html
"The most common classical usage of ekklesia and its cognates was as a political term, meaning an assembly of citizens. In the Greek city-state the citizens were called forth by the trumpet of the kerux (herald) summoning them to the ekklesia (assembly)."
But did the English word chirche, churche, circe, kirk, etc mean?
Here is the link to the definition of church in the Oxford English Dictionary is: Y: The English word "CHURCH" comes from CIRCE!! - §1. ÊÎÍÑÈËÈÓÌ
"CHURCH: FORMS: (a) cirice, cyrice, chiriche, churiche, chereche, (b) CIRCE, cyrce, chyrce, cirke, etc. "The ulterior derivation has been keenly disputed. The L. circus, and a Gothic word kйlikn 'tower, upper chamber' (app. originally
Gaulish) have both been proposed (the latter suggested by the Alemannic chilihha), but are set aside as untenable; and there is now a general
agreement among scholars in referring it to the Greek word, properly kurion adj. 'of the Lord, dominicum, dominical' (f. Kurios lord), which
occurs, from the 3rd century at least, used substantively (sc. doma, or the like) = 'house of the Lord', as a name of the Christian house of
worship.....CIRCE was a Greek goddess who turned men into PIGS!!"
The Oxford English Dictionary mentions the Greek goddess circe, and also says in caps in its list of spellings of church, the word CIRCE.
The old English word circe, chirche, kirk or churche is said to have meant the house of a lord, a place of pagan worship, or circe, the Greek goddness. But circe, or churche was redefined by the clergy. Neither churche as a house of a pagan lord or circe as the Greek goddess have the same meaning as the Greek word ekklesia.
Why was the church redefined, and what did it come to mean?
I Peter 5: 2-3 says "Feed the flock of God which is among you, taking the oversight thereof, not by constraint, but willingly; not for filthy lucre, but of a ready mind;
3. Neither as being lords over God's heritage, but being ensamples to the flock."
I Peter 5:2-3 says that what we call priests and preachers are to feed God's people, but they are not to constrain the people of God, are not to make money from feeding the people of God, and are not to be lords over them. This identifies how the priests and hierarchy of the Roman Catholic Church redefined the ekklesia (Greek), the Ecclesia (Latin) and the churche (early English) so that the priests and religious hierarchy could rule over the people. The ekklesia (Greek) is just a meeting,assembly,gathering or congregation of God's people, his elect plus some who are beginning to become interested. The ekklesia is not a proper noun; it is a common noun. The Ecclesia and the Churche were made into proper nouns,and into a man-made organization to be ruled by the clergy class.
Then III John 1: 9-10 says "I wrote unto the church: but Diotrephes, who loveth to have the preeminence among them, receiveth us not. Wherefore, if I come, I will remember his deeds which he doeth, prating against us with malicious words: and not content therewith, neither doth he himself receive the brethren, and forbiddeth them that would, and casteth them out of the church." Since Diotrephes is said to have cast people out of the ekklesia - the assembly - he must have been a church authority of some kind. This guy who apparently was in some kind of authority over an assembly of Christians would not receive the apostle John.
When Theodore Beza, an early Calvinist, supported the burning of the anti-Trinitarian Michael Servetus (died 1553), he showed his view that the Churche should be an organization which rules over men. Beza, contrary to I Peter 5: 2-3 had the Calvinist Churche rule by constraint and to lord it over the people.
Beza emphasized the authority of the church and of the ordained clergy more than did Calvin. Encyclopædia Britannica at http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/.../Theodore-Beza says "In most matters, he reiterated Calvin’s views, though with greater stress on ecclesiastical discipline and rigid obedience to authority."
In 1565 Beza published his Greek New Testament, in which he translated ekklesia as church. The English protestants who were in Geneva to escape from the Catholic Queen Bloody Mary were influenced by Beza and translated ekklesia consistently as church.
It is interesting that the Geneva Bible translates ekklesia correctly in Acts 9: 39, saying "But if ye enquire any thing concerning other matters, it shall be determined in a lawful assembly." The King James also has assembly for ekklesia in Acts 9: 39. What is the contextual or grammatical reason to translate ekklesia as assembly in Acts 9: 39 and in all other verses as word church?
According to James Baikie in his book, The English Bible Its Story,Lippincott: Philadelphia, 1928, pp. 273-74, the old ecclesiastical words were to be kept in the KJV translation, which meant that church was not to be translated as congregation.
The words assembly or congregation do not support the hierarchical form of church government that the Roman Catholic, Anglican and Calvinist churches had set up, and which has been followed since the Reformation..
In Revelation 9: 5, 15,18, 19 the locust-scorpions do not have the power to kill, but the serpents are given the power to kill. In Revelation 9:15-19 the serpents are given power to kill. The serpents, who in Matthew 23: 33 are the Pharisees,are said here to kill with what comes out of their mouths,and so this killing is metaphoric. Their spiritual life is killed. But in that which is spiritual, death of the spiritual is most important.
Since the serpent-Pharisees are given power to kill the spiritual life, we can see that those with the serpent spirit might also want the power to physically kill those who disagree with them. But Christ came to bring life (John 10: 19),and in Luke 9: 54,when James and John wanted to call fire down from heaven to kill a village that rejected Jesus, Christ said "Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of. For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them."
The meeting, assembly, gathering or congregation was not given the power, as I Peter 5:2-3 says, to constrain,and lord it over its members. Therefore,no ruling elite is authorized by scripture to have authority beyond feeding the group the truth, especially not the power to physically kill as Theodore Beza thought the Church had. So, I Peter 5:2-3 is relevant to the identify issue of what and who are the elect in Christ,and of the issue of the Church replacing physical Israel.
The modern day Pharisee types teach scripture in a compartmentalized way, so that only one verse or strand of scripture is viewed at a time - because this compartmentalization makes it easier to teach the traditions of men (Matthew 15:3, 6, Mark 7:8). Teaching more than one verse at a time can invite people to interpret scripture by scripture, and the Pharisees do not want that to be done.
Since the serpents, who are the Pharisee types, believe they rule over the people of God, then these are the people who redefined the meaning of the ekklesia, the Ecclesia and the churche to make the assembly into the Body of Christ, the elect, and Sion as an organization of man, so that the Pharisee types could rule over this redefined Churche.
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