cuprunsovr
Member
- Joined
- Feb 27, 2006
- Messages
- 54
Good morning brothers and sisters -
This is my first post (will try not to hose it up :embarasse ), I have been reading many of your posts from the "sideline" and want to extend to all of you blessings for your insight, prayers, and testimony.
So here is my deal - comparitvly speaking I am fairly "green" in my faith / true devotion to Christ and would appreciate your insight / guidance on a handful of issues. Without giving you my full testimonial (pretty good one btw) I have been consumed with defining my faith and softening my heart for the last 2 years but still get hung up on a couple things. If my tone comes off argumentative or combative it should not be taken as such - probably just frustration coming through.
My first question boils down to "why is the Bible exclusivly reserved as the only written word of God / account of Jesus Christ?" Take it in 2 parts - Ancient / Modern
Ancient - obviously the question here would relate to the Gnostic gospels, now in fairness I have not read them myself so I can't point for point speak to their content or authenticity but if their subject matter is more accounts of our Savior and their message is consistant within the variance of canonized material why would we not want, rather crave, to know what they have to say about our Lord and his bride? However the sense that I have received is that I should not only NOT entertain the thought but distance myself as much as possible under the umbrella of Jesus's fore warning of false prophets. I have also often heard scripture referenced (can't find it in concordance sorry) that nothing shall be added or taken away from scripture but wouldn't this have been written pre-Constatine? Thus begging the question of what is "scripture" defined as at that point, and why would a book carry more weight than an existing gnostic scripture at that point? I do understand that the core of the issue is belief that scripture of the Holy Bible is God spoken, and the Council of Nicaea was acting in the Holy Spirit when their decisions were made on inclusion, but weren't these just men like you or I capable of flaw and error? Again my intent is not to push for gnostics or take on fundamental doctrine just to understand the reasoning behind why it is so opposed now when its exclusion was determined by falable men.
Modern - this is a bit of a different question but same kind of topic. I think we can all agree that we live according to an active living God, no more or less active than in the time of Moses, Abraham or Christ. I guess my question here is basically "Is Revelations "it" in a scriptural sense until the return of the Lord?", put another way many many people are moved by the Spirit in revelations given to them, should their accounts be given any more or less credit than that of the Biblical revelations? And what, or who, would determine that? Let me give an example - Howard Storm wrote a book "My Descent Into Death" - in short he was an atheist, had a "near death experience" in which he was rescued from some sort of hadeas, was risen up by angels and brought before Jesus where he conversed with the Lord and returned to his earthly body, he has since become a Minister and active missionary around the world sharing the Good News of Jesus and his 'revelations' of the world given to him from the savior. Now I am in no way suggesting his account should be 'canonized' or anything like that - but how is one to take an account like that in relation to written scripture? If the message can with stand tests of purity and goodness (1 Thes 5:21), and we believe in an active God where do we draw the line between "false-prophet" and "equal to the written word of God".
In advance I appreciate your insights. Believe me I praise the Lord that he knows my heart and knows that I am an analytical, hard headed person to a fault. For people like me that think in terms of proof and conjecture the Lord has to provide quite a bit of Grace at times , but praise him who is faithful.
May grace surround all of you, and thanks again.
This is my first post (will try not to hose it up :embarasse ), I have been reading many of your posts from the "sideline" and want to extend to all of you blessings for your insight, prayers, and testimony.
So here is my deal - comparitvly speaking I am fairly "green" in my faith / true devotion to Christ and would appreciate your insight / guidance on a handful of issues. Without giving you my full testimonial (pretty good one btw) I have been consumed with defining my faith and softening my heart for the last 2 years but still get hung up on a couple things. If my tone comes off argumentative or combative it should not be taken as such - probably just frustration coming through.
My first question boils down to "why is the Bible exclusivly reserved as the only written word of God / account of Jesus Christ?" Take it in 2 parts - Ancient / Modern
Ancient - obviously the question here would relate to the Gnostic gospels, now in fairness I have not read them myself so I can't point for point speak to their content or authenticity but if their subject matter is more accounts of our Savior and their message is consistant within the variance of canonized material why would we not want, rather crave, to know what they have to say about our Lord and his bride? However the sense that I have received is that I should not only NOT entertain the thought but distance myself as much as possible under the umbrella of Jesus's fore warning of false prophets. I have also often heard scripture referenced (can't find it in concordance sorry) that nothing shall be added or taken away from scripture but wouldn't this have been written pre-Constatine? Thus begging the question of what is "scripture" defined as at that point, and why would a book carry more weight than an existing gnostic scripture at that point? I do understand that the core of the issue is belief that scripture of the Holy Bible is God spoken, and the Council of Nicaea was acting in the Holy Spirit when their decisions were made on inclusion, but weren't these just men like you or I capable of flaw and error? Again my intent is not to push for gnostics or take on fundamental doctrine just to understand the reasoning behind why it is so opposed now when its exclusion was determined by falable men.
Modern - this is a bit of a different question but same kind of topic. I think we can all agree that we live according to an active living God, no more or less active than in the time of Moses, Abraham or Christ. I guess my question here is basically "Is Revelations "it" in a scriptural sense until the return of the Lord?", put another way many many people are moved by the Spirit in revelations given to them, should their accounts be given any more or less credit than that of the Biblical revelations? And what, or who, would determine that? Let me give an example - Howard Storm wrote a book "My Descent Into Death" - in short he was an atheist, had a "near death experience" in which he was rescued from some sort of hadeas, was risen up by angels and brought before Jesus where he conversed with the Lord and returned to his earthly body, he has since become a Minister and active missionary around the world sharing the Good News of Jesus and his 'revelations' of the world given to him from the savior. Now I am in no way suggesting his account should be 'canonized' or anything like that - but how is one to take an account like that in relation to written scripture? If the message can with stand tests of purity and goodness (1 Thes 5:21), and we believe in an active God where do we draw the line between "false-prophet" and "equal to the written word of God".
In advance I appreciate your insights. Believe me I praise the Lord that he knows my heart and knows that I am an analytical, hard headed person to a fault. For people like me that think in terms of proof and conjecture the Lord has to provide quite a bit of Grace at times , but praise him who is faithful.
May grace surround all of you, and thanks again.