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Law Liquidated

NetChaplain

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Aug 9, 2012
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If righteousness (Gal 2:21) and redemption came by the Law then only Jews could ever be saved, for Gentiles were never under it prior to its annulling (Heb 7:18, 19; 8:7; 10:9). Until all the Law would be “fulfilled” it could not “pass” (Mat 5:18), thus its passing came when Christ fulfilled, or, finished it (Rom 10:4). Remember, it is Christ’s words that “shall not pass away” (Mat 24:35), not the Mosaic Law!

In this article it makes a point that since the Law did not require one’s death for obedience, then “why did Christ die?” Thus it was His expiation for sin (after His obedience to the Law manifested His qualification for sacrifice which required a perfect subject), which voids the curse, and not His supposedly imputed Law-obedience to the believer. The Lord Jesus has always been righteous by virtue of His deity and sinless state (which His Law-obedience manifested), and it is this righteousness which is imputed to the believer!

Those who were under the Law were “under the curse” (Gal 3:10), for it manifested souls to be “ungodly” (1 Ti 1:9), thus the Law could only direct toward deliverance, not effect it (Gal 3:24, 24), because the Law was “not of faith” (Gal 3:12) but of works. Hence we enter in, not on the works of man but on the works of the Lord Jesus Christ! Besides, the obedience of the Law required not just the outward working which anyone could have done—but also the accompaniment of a sinless soul by the Doer.
NC




Law Liquidated

“Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness to everyone that believes” (Rom 10:4).

When the Lord Jesus died on the Cross, He bore for Israel the curse of the Law, for they alone were under the Law. Divine Law, being broken, does not ask for future good conduct on the part of the offender, but for his death, and that only. Now Christ having died, all the claims of the Law against that nation which had been placed under the law were completely met and ended. So that even Jews could now believe, and say, “I am dead to the Law!”

To him that believeth, therefore, Jew or Gentile, Christ dead, buried, risen and ascended is the end of the Law for righteousness—in the sense of Law’s disappearance from the scene! Law does not know, or take cognizance of believers. We read in Romans 7:6 that those who had been under the Law were discharged from the Law, brought to naught, put out of business (katargeo), with respect to the Law. The Law has nothing to do with them, as regards to righteousness.

The words “Christ is the end of the Law” cannot mean He is the fulfillment of what the Law required. The Law required obedience to precepts—or death for disobedience. Now Christ died! If it be answered, that before He died He fulfilled the claims of the Law, kept it perfectly, and that this law-keeping of His was reckoned as over against the Israel’s breaking of the Law, then I ask, “Why should Christ die (since death is not required in the case of obedience—NC)? If the claims of the Law were met in His earthly obedience, and if that earthly life of obedience is “reckoned to those who believe,” and the curse of the Law has been removed by His “vicarious law-keeping,” Why then, should Christ die?

Now this idea of Christ keeping the Law for “us” (for they will include us among the Israelites, even though the Law was not given to Gentiles), is a deadly heresy, no matter who teaches it. Paul tells us plainly how the curse of the Law was removed: “Christ redeemed us (meaning the Jewish believers) from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us” (Gal 3:13). It was on the Cross, and not by an earthly life of obedience that Christ bore the Law’s curse!

There was no law given “which could make alive,” Paul says; “otherwise righteousness would have been by it” (Gal 3:21). Therefore those who speak of Christ, as taking the place of fulfilling the Law for us—as “the object at which the Law aimed” (Alford); or, “the fulfillment or accomplishment of the Law” (Calvin); give the Law an office that God did not give it. There is not in all Scripture a hint of the doctrine that Christ’s earthly life—His obedience as a man under the Law—is “put to the account” of any sinner whatsoever! That obedience which was perfect, was in order that He could “present Himself through the eternal Spirit without spot unto God” (Heb 9:14) as a sin-offering. It was also in order to His sacrificial death, as “a curse” for Israel (and for us believing Gentiles who were under the curse of “the law of sin“, which was incurred unto the whole world - Gen 2:17—NC).

It is because Reformed theology (though well intended—NC) has kept us Gentiles under the Law, if not as a means of righteousness, then as “a rule of life,” that all the trouble has arisen (legalism, which was always Paul’s greatest opposition to the doctrine of grace—NC). The Law is no more a rule of life than it is a means of righteousness. Walking in the Spirit has now taken the place of walking by ordinances. God has another principle under which He has positioned His saints: “You are not under law, but under grace” (Rom 6:14). “For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has made me free from the law of sin and death” (Rom 8:2).

- Wm R Newell




Excerpt from MJS devotional for July 11:
“If and when the trial comes, you will find Him waiting there.” - MJS

“We should always be prepared for circumstances that will arise, and for blessings that are to come, without foreseeing what these circumstances and blessings will be. This preparation consists in attention to present responsibility, and acceptance of present discipline.

“If day by day we first seek divine direction, and then follow it, we shall be ready, when new circumstances arise, for the new blessings which will be offered. Today should be preparation for tomorrow. The only proof that we shall be equal to tomorrow’s test is that we are meeting today’s test believingly and courageously. The only evidence that we shall be willing for God’s will tomorrow is that we are subject to His will today.” -W.G.S.
 
The Gentiles who never knew about the law, will still be judged by the law. Gentiles have always been under the law.

Rom 2:12; When the Gentiles sin, they will be destroyed, even though they never had God’s written law. And the Jews, who do have God’s law, will be judged by that law when they fail to obey it.
Rom 2:13; For merely listening to the law doesn’t make us right with God. It is obeying the law that makes us right in his sight.
Rom 2:14; Even Gentiles, who do not have God’s written law, show that they know his law when they instinctively obey it, even without having heard it.
Rom 2:15; They demonstrate that God’s law is written in their hearts, for their own conscience and thoughts either accuse them or tell them they are doing right.

But if Gentiles were never under the law, then Gentiles could never sin, and therefore have no need for Jesus.

Rom 5:13; Yes, people sinned even before the law was given. But it was not counted as sin because there was not yet any law to break.
Rom 5:14; Still, everyone died—from the time of Adam to the time of Moses—even those who did not disobey an explicit commandment of God, as Adam did. Now Adam is a symbol, a representation of Christ, who was yet to come.

1 Jn 3:4; Everyone who sins is breaking God’s law, for all sin is contrary to the law of God.

Everyone.. Jews, Gentiles.. everyone who sins... is breaking the law.
Even in the old testament dozens of verses say Gentiles were under the law. Nineveh was a Gentile city, but God
was going to destroy them if the didn't repent.

Without the law, we wouldn't know what sin was.

Rom 7:7; Well then, am I suggesting that the law of God is sinful? Of course not! In fact, it was the law that showed me my sin. I would never have known that coveting is wrong if the law had not said, “You must not covet.”
Rom 7:8; But sin used this command to arouse all kinds of covetous desires within me! If there were no law, sin would not have that power.

All this aside, the law was never "liquidated" or abolished. It is simply fulfilled for those obey Jesus.

Matt 5:17; “Don’t misunderstand why I have come. I did not come to abolish the law of Moses or the writings of the prophets. No, I came to accomplish their purpose.
Matt 5:18; I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not even the smallest detail of God’s law will disappear until its purpose is achieved.

Death is still required for sin.

Rom 6:23; For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life through Christ Jesus our Lord.

The only thing that really changed was who had to die. Someone died in your place, but the law still applies.
Even to Gentiles.
 
Rom 10:4; For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

Believer aren't under the penalty of the law. But for everyone else... the law still applies.
 
There is not in all Scripture a hint of the doctrine that Christ’s earthly life—His obedience as a man under the Law—is “put to the account” of any sinner whatsoever! That obedience which was perfect, was in order that He could “present Himself through the eternal Spirit without spot unto God” (Heb 9:14) as a sin-offering. It was also in order to His sacrificial death, as “a curse” for Israel (and for us believing Gentiles who were under the curse of “the law of sin“, which was incurred unto the whole world - Gen 2:17—NC).
I appreciate the distinction made here... and will be studying this out further. Thank you NC.
 
There is not in all Scripture a hint of the doctrine that Christ’s earthly life—His obedience as a man under the Law—is “put to the account” of any sinner whatsoever!

Isa 53:5; But He was pierced through for our transgressions,
He was crushed for our iniquities;
The chastening for our well-being fell upon Him,
And by His scourging we are healed.
Isa 53:6; All of us like sheep have gone astray,
Each of us has turned to his own way;
But the Lord has caused the iniquity of us all
To fall on Him
.
Isa 53:7; He was oppressed and He was afflicted,
Yet He did not open His mouth;
Like a lamb that is led to slaughter,
And like a sheep that is silent before its shearers,
So He did not open His mouth.
Isa 53:8; By oppression and judgment He was taken away;
And as for His generation, who considered
That He was cut off out of the land of the living
For the transgression of my people, to whom the stroke was due?

Rom 5:18; So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.
Rom 5:19; For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.

Heb 9:28; so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him

Heb 10:12; but He, having offered one sacrifice for sins for all time, sat down at the right hand of God,

1 Pet 2:24; and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed
 
The Gentiles who never knew about the law, will still be judged by the law. Gentiles have always been under the law.

But if Gentiles were never under the law, then Gentiles could never sin, and therefore have no need for Jesus.
Hi BAC - God to hear from you and thanks for your reply! It's my understanding that all are under a universal "law of sin" (Gen 2:17), but only the nation Israel was also under the "Law of Moses" before it was "taken away" (Heb 10:9).
 
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