I am referring to a heretical perversion of God's word called "A Faithful Version, The Original Bible Restored"
Here are some of its intentional mistranslations -
Eph. 2:15. "Having annulled in His flesh the enmity, the law of commandments contained in the decrees of men, so that in Himself He might create both into one new man, making peace;"
According to that perversion, it is the "decrees of men" that were annulled or abolished, not the Law of Moses. How does that play out in this translation?
Gal. 3:2. "This only I desire to learn from you: did you receive the Spirit of God by works of law, (see explanation) or by the hearing of faith?" *When you select the explanation, you get the following -
"In order to understand that the traditional laws of Judaism are not the commands of God given to Moses in the Pentateuch, one needs to read...Appendix R, “What Is Meant by the Works of the Law?”
Appendix R
The True Meaning of “Works of Law”: It is evident in these verses that Paul is including the traditional laws of Judaism in the phrase “works of law.” (A Faithful Version)
According to this false teacher, Christ only annulled the traditions of the Jews, not the Law of Moses; so therefore, when Paul writes "The only thing I want to learn from you is this: Did you receive the Spirit by doing the works of the law or by believing what you heard?" (Gal 3:2 NRSV) He is only referring to the traditions of the Jews. Again -
Gal. 2:16. "Knowing that a man is not justified by works of law (see Appendix R), but through the faith of Jesus Christ, we also have believed in Christ Jesus in order that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law; because by works of law shall no flesh be justified."
This heretic teaches that "a man is not justified by the traditions of the Jews", instead of "a man is not justified by the Law of Moses".
Again -
Gal. 2:21. "I do not nullify the grace of God; for if righteousness is through works of law (see Appendix R), then Christ died in vain."
If anyone can find in the NT where the traditions of the Jews are specifically called "law", let's see it. You can maybe read it into a passage, but you do not find that explicitly stated. When the word "law" does not have the definite article, there is no reason to think that is referring to the Jewish traditions. It more likely is referring to the law written in the heart of Gentiles -
"When Gentiles, who do not possess the law, do instinctively what the law requires, these, though not having the law, are a law to themselves. They show that what the law requires is written on their hearts, to which their own conscience also bears witness; and their conflicting thoughts will accuse or perhaps excuse them..." (Rom 2:14-15 NRSV)
At least one person on his Forum is following this false teacher.
Here are some of its intentional mistranslations -
Eph. 2:15. "Having annulled in His flesh the enmity, the law of commandments contained in the decrees of men, so that in Himself He might create both into one new man, making peace;"
According to that perversion, it is the "decrees of men" that were annulled or abolished, not the Law of Moses. How does that play out in this translation?
Gal. 3:2. "This only I desire to learn from you: did you receive the Spirit of God by works of law, (see explanation) or by the hearing of faith?" *When you select the explanation, you get the following -
"In order to understand that the traditional laws of Judaism are not the commands of God given to Moses in the Pentateuch, one needs to read...Appendix R, “What Is Meant by the Works of the Law?”
Appendix R
The True Meaning of “Works of Law”: It is evident in these verses that Paul is including the traditional laws of Judaism in the phrase “works of law.” (A Faithful Version)
According to this false teacher, Christ only annulled the traditions of the Jews, not the Law of Moses; so therefore, when Paul writes "The only thing I want to learn from you is this: Did you receive the Spirit by doing the works of the law or by believing what you heard?" (Gal 3:2 NRSV) He is only referring to the traditions of the Jews. Again -
Gal. 2:16. "Knowing that a man is not justified by works of law (see Appendix R), but through the faith of Jesus Christ, we also have believed in Christ Jesus in order that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law; because by works of law shall no flesh be justified."
This heretic teaches that "a man is not justified by the traditions of the Jews", instead of "a man is not justified by the Law of Moses".
Again -
Gal. 2:21. "I do not nullify the grace of God; for if righteousness is through works of law (see Appendix R), then Christ died in vain."
If anyone can find in the NT where the traditions of the Jews are specifically called "law", let's see it. You can maybe read it into a passage, but you do not find that explicitly stated. When the word "law" does not have the definite article, there is no reason to think that is referring to the Jewish traditions. It more likely is referring to the law written in the heart of Gentiles -
"When Gentiles, who do not possess the law, do instinctively what the law requires, these, though not having the law, are a law to themselves. They show that what the law requires is written on their hearts, to which their own conscience also bears witness; and their conflicting thoughts will accuse or perhaps excuse them..." (Rom 2:14-15 NRSV)
At least one person on his Forum is following this false teacher.