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Why does God send people to hell?

He has all those to give to those who truly repent.
There is a permanent change in those who repent. Once a person does and God "works" on them, the old person can't exist anymore. They know the Truth.
The existence of Hell shows where many will end up.

Jesus' first words in his ministry were "Follow me."
"And he said to all, “If anyone would come after me, let him deny himself and take up his cross daily and follow me." - Luke 9:23
"Then Jesus told his disciples, “If anyone would come after me, let him deny himself and take up his cross and follow me." - Matthew 16:24
"And calling the crowd to him with his disciples, he said to them, “If anyone would come after me, let him deny himself and take up his cross and follow me." - Mark 8:34

"Whoever does not bear his own cross and come after me cannot be my disciple." - Luke 14:27

Grace? "For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast." - Ephesians 2:8-9

1. Jesus is the only way. Jews and Muslims? They are a goin' DOWN.
2. Jesus died for the world BUT anyone can refuse and never ask for salvation and forgiveness.

Stealing is stealing even if it's a $1.20 loaf of bread.
There are no LGB+ "Christians" as many claim to be and no Christian can support people who refuse to stop sinning.
No Christian can support a false teacher no matter who it is and we are told to not let them in our home.
Mormons? The mockery and absurd version of "Christianity" they came up with is blasphemous.

The rules? At a minimum 10:
1-4 about how to treat and worship God.
5- for the parents who helped give you life.
6-10 - How to treat self and others.
All summed up in: "Love the Lord your God with everything and "love your neighbor as yourself".
Christians don't get to cherry pick which parts of what God said they want to follow.
 
* This is totally confusing.

It seems we cannot communicate with each other, Rhema, for we do not speak the same language.

Within the love of Christ our Saviour
Chris
I am truly sorry that it has come to this. Please accept my apologies that my words were insufficient to provide an adequate understanding. But I don't see a language problem here, but more one of definitions.

* If that is the question, then I can answer it, but not necessarily provide a scripture as you requested (from the words of the Lord Jesus Christ). You have provided one that you believe is an adequate Scripture, from the Lord's prayer: I did not think of that; but I thank you for bringing it to my attention.
Then again maybe it is semantics, because as I read the above statement, the implication is that you do not believe that which is taught in the Lord's prayer is an adequate answer from Scripture.

We can leave off for now, but I would hope to return to the center here -

Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel.​
(Mark 1:14-15 KJV)

If Jesus came preaching the Gospel, then the Gospel is what Jesus preached (and none other).

I do not believe that what Jesus preached (as testified in the gospels) is inadequate to provide salvation (and that God needed Paul to explain things to the Twelve).

Kindly,
Rhema
 
* Yes, I too asked God to forgive me for my sins.
And that's why your sins were forgiven. Because you asked. That's what Jesus taught.
* That cannot be used as a support text for WHY I was forgiven for my sins, (ie., The question you asked)
Maybe not your's(?), but it is most certainly IS a reason why many have had their sins forgiven. The Father forgives all who ask (pray) in repentance, and this is the Gospel that Jesus, the Son of God, brought to this earth. As a matter of Truth, it is the only reason why one's sins are forgiven.

In Christ (1 Cor. 1:30) the believer has 'pardon' (i.e., deliverance, forgiveness, liberty, remission.), the Lord Jesus Christ having paid the ransom price in full, thereby bringing deliverance and redemption.
A debt can be discharged either by it being forgiven OR by it being paid. Not both. When one pays off a bank mortgage, one cannot say that the bank "forgave" the loan. It did not.

If, on the other hand, a loan is forgiven, it means it has not been paid.

Is this confusion truly because we speak a different "language"?

Blessings,
Rhema
 
Stealing is stealing even if it's a $1.20 loaf of bread.
And Jesus answering said unto him, Simon, I have somewhat to say unto thee. And he saith, Master, say on. There was a certain creditor which had two debtors: the one owed five hundred pence, and the other fifty. And when they had nothing to pay, he frankly forgave them both.​
- Luke 7:40-42 KJV

So the Mercy of God has a price limit of $1.20 ??

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.​
- John 1:14 KJV

God is not a lawyer, to have law for law's sake:

And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath:​
- Mark 2:27 KJV

God doesn't have human or emotional bias that would bend the rules.
You mean like compassion? (And mercy?)

It is of the LORD'S mercies that we are not consumed, because his compassions fail not.​
- Lamentations 3:22 KJV

If God didn't "bend the rules" all y'all would dead NOW.

Just a thought,
Rhema
 
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