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"My definition would be, 'A personal feeling and/or cognitive appraisal about a thing or concept with or without the presence of evidence supporting the feeling.' "
What do you mean by feeling?
Believe, to have a state of arousal concerning a thing or idea. Is this correct neuroscience?
Believe, to have a state of arousal concerning a thing or idea. Then the supernatural does not evoke the arousal due to lack of evidence.
Thus, a further definition is now necessary, what is evidence?
Thus i would now ask you to descibe what this lack of evidence is.
I think the burden of proof rests with neuroscience. What is this lack of evidence.
Neuroscience101 said:it's when the two "natures" interact that both should be detectable. Consider when Jesus turned water into wine. We probably couldn't explain the supernatural essence when it was water, but the moment Jesus changed the water, he broke powerful hydrogen bonds, materialized carbon bonded to the oxygen and a host of other wonderful chemical reactions. That's the part that should be detectable. And, if someone were to determine that there was no other possible way for water to be turned into wine so quickly, an explanation of an outside force would be necessary which may in time point to a supernatural.
You sprinkled your argument with three premises. Are you aware of these premises neuroscience?
.Neuroscience101 said:...but for the record I'm not claiming the supernatural does not exist...
David777 said:...athiesm may in fact be a refusal to believe rather than non belief...
David777 said:What is this lack of evidence.
David777 said:...athiesm may in fact be a refusal to believe rather than non belief...
1) A distinction between the supernatural (nature) and the physical (nature)? Where did you derive this idea of seperation neuroscience?
I demand evidence to support this idea!
David777 said:"Supernatural" has a definition...It is defined as beyond the natural, beyond science.
2) Interaction of the "supernatural" with "reality" must be detectable?
This second idea is more remarkable than the first. Once again I demand evidence?
Neuroscience101 said:... in order for it to work in our universe, it must obey our stable physical laws (F=ma, m1v1=m2v2, E=mc^2, etc) otherwise it could not interact with our universe...
I'm going to question your ethos in a few paragraphs but I'll allude to it with this:
Our universe follows stable, rational laws - some of which I've laid out for you. The reason you - in your human experience - can detect the reality you perceive is because of those stable rational laws; this gets into the very precise ways in which the light-sensitive cells in our eyes pick up different wavelengths of light, how voltage and concentration gradients due to postassium, sodium and chloride ions between phospholipid bilayers send electrical currents through your body, and the "brain hierarchal structure". If you want to know the evidence behind all of that, then you'd be reading about Physics, Biochemistry, and Biology; I can't educate you in five minutes on all of that. A good place to start if you really need to know all of it is a textbook known as "Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology" by Kolb & Wishaw.
Nevertheless, we as humans detect things based on the natural world around us. That's how our bodies are.
Thus, for the supernatural to be detectable, it must also interact with the natural, and it must also abide by our physical laws of nature or else it would be - by our universes very existence - undetectable. If you're going to argue, "Well what if it transcends our physical laws" then you're making a special plead for this one possibility, and even so you still could not be able to detect it because your body relies on natural laws to interact with the world.
Secondly, please refrain from immaturely misquoting me; I did not ever use the word "reality" and I did not imply that there is a difference between the two.
3) Then you stated that reason would after detection conclude the supernatural? Why is reason the foundation of your argument?
You presented the ideas, these premises, now provide the evidence to support this.
Ah, you're moving toward the idea of a "post hoc ergo proctor hoc" fallacy for my stipulation, but you're ignoring the very important tidbit:
Neuroscience101 said:...The problem with this is that, although it must obey by our physical laws such as the law of conservation of energy, there is a difference between description and explanation. We should be able to describe it in terms of physical laws - like in the water to wine quote above - however we should not be able to find any explanation other than supernatural intervention.
...
(From previous post to David777) --- Consider when Jesus turned water into wine. We probably couldn't explain the supernatural essence when it was water, but the moment Jesus changed the water, he broke powerful hydrogen bonds, materialized carbon bonded to the oxygen and a host of other wonderful chemical reactions. That's the part that should be detectable. And, if someone were to determine that there was no other possible way for water to be turned into wine so quickly, an explanation of an outside force would be necessary which may in time point to a supernatural.
I am not claiming that one event would lead to the conclusion of the supernatural. I'm saying that lack of explanatory power on the part of the natural is an important crux for the argument for a supernatural. That's not saying, "If we have something we can't explain, then it's the supernatural." I would disagree with that, however I would say that lack of a natural explanation would then not rule our a supernatural.
As for your question, "Why is reason the foundation of your argument?", that is a special plead if I ever saw one; essentially you're questioning the basis of the use of reason in an argument and then asking me to follow reason by providing evidence for premises (which the above are not the premises and I'm suspicious that you might know that). It's like you're saying, "What is the basis for eating cake, now eat that cake."
Please note my friend, i have studied a Batchelor of Science. No more high school equations, please.
David, three quick things on this:
1) That appeal to ethos works when someone doesn't understand what a Bachelor of Science is. A B.S. degree is a particular type of degree which generally emphasizes specialization in a particular field as opposed to a liberal arts degree (B.A.) which is often a more diverse program. Simply because you have a B.S. does not mean that you have a degree in a relevant science (or what's commonly referred to as science). Having or knowing about the Bachelor of Science degree does not mean you studied a relevant (or what's commonly referred to as) science, namely fields such as Physics, Biology, or Chemistry. I know plenty of people who have a Bachelor of Science degree...they just have it in Business.
2) You have "studied" a bachelor of science? Do you mean you have a Bachelor of Science Degree or that you've studied what one is or something else?
3) Since when is theoretical quantum mechanics being taught in High School? I've only been out of High School a few years and learning quantum mechanics was relegated to the college-level physics courses. While it may be true that e=mc^2 is a common theory that people know about, I don't believe that the actual theory behind Einstein's General Relativity is being taught. I feel very bad for those children if it is.
Do you see neuroscience, that athiesm may in fact be a refusal to believe rather than non belief. This refusal to believe is not based on any hard evidence, rather it is fashionable in this day and age. It may appear a fair position, but is rather narrow and submissive of that which it does not understand.
Though Neuroscience101 appears to be trying very hard to form a logical argument, it is not logical when also taking into consideration what God says in the Bible.
^ The facts: this is a Christian website.
It's clear sir, that you are not here to gain understanding. You are here to be heard.
Strawberry, a few quick things:
We're not talking about Christianity as I understand it. We're talking quite blankly about the supernatural. I was unaware that we were using the two interchangeably.
Second, I thought the Bible said, "Answer a fool according to his folly, or he will be wise in his own eyes" (Proverbs 26:5)? The reason I refrain from quoting scripture is because, in any argument, it's required to demonstrate that the Bible is God's word in a logical sense and that almost always leads to an episode of circular reasoning which I would like to avoid. Hopefully, that clarifies why I didn't talk with David about Christianity and instead about the supernatural.
Finally, what does C.S. Lewis' personal testimony have to do with anything?