Francis Drake
Member
- Joined
- Jan 12, 2013
- Messages
- 49
Originally Posted by Francis Drake
Say I marry a lady who has been ill for some time in her reproductive organs. She has been told that any pregnancy will kill her. We are both deeply in love, and are greatly concerned for her future. Therefore we decide not to have children, and must use contraceptives.
How does your theory apply? Are we in rebellion here? Am I wrong to choose the life of my wife against her death, and that of the child. Or should we marry but never be allowed to consummate it.
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What are the odds of that situation happening? Extremely rare, I'll wager. Of course there should be exceptions for legitimate medical reasons, but that does not validate the casual use of contraceptives.
Ed, you would be foolish to place your wager on this daft notion!
Added to which, if a theology comes from God, rather than some religious zealots, then it will hold water when and wherever it is applied. The medical profession has absolutely no place in deciding the validity of biblical truth.
I wrote the comment because it is close to my personal experience with my wife. She has had a serious and painful problem with her womb for decades and has repeatedly been told that she should have a hysterectomy, something which she consistently refuses. We constantly fight and believe for healing, and always seek the Lord in that area.
We have therefore used contraceptives which brings us straight under the judgment of the legalists on this forum.
My wife and I both have a vibrant relationship with the Lord. We are both very sensitive to hearing the Holy Spirit, and know clearly when we walk outside of the will of the Lord.
My wife is also my best friend in the whole world, my closest companion and spiritual partner. I have never met anyone who sees the heart of God like she does.
We also both thoroughly enjoy the sexual side of our marriage. It is delightful and a special part of our relationship. She would be extremely aggrieved if we were not able to enjoy that part relationship because of the so called spiritual rules as presented here.
From both our experiences, from knowing the passionate heart of God, from knowing scriptural truths, the notion that the purpose of sex is primarily reproductive is shear unbiblical bunkum.
Perversion has made sex into something unclean in this world, so why are Christians again adding to Satan's weaponry against pure hearted marital sex?
What does the bible say about marital sex?
Hebrews 13v4. "Marriage is honourable in all, and the marriage bed undefiled, but fornicators and adulterers God will judge".
1Cor7v2. Nevertheless, to avoid fornication let every man have his own wife and let every woman have her own husband. 3. Let the husband render unto the wife her due, and likewise the also the wife unto the husband.
Read it people. Read it. This is totally about sexual enjoyment. Paul is not merely trying to enlarge the Corinthian church membership!
v4 The wife has not power over her own body, but the husband and likewise also the husband has not power over his own body but the wife. v5 Defraud you not one another except it be with consent for a time that you may give yourselves to fasting and prayer...........................etc.
There is nowhere in these passages which indicate that sex is primarily for reproduction purposes. Paul makes it clear that sex is a God created and obligatory part of marriage which should never be used to defraud the other. Paul couldn't be clearer that both sides have a right to demand sexual pleasure from the other!
Its about time some true scriptural evidence was given to support these legalistic ideas for making marital sex ever more sinful.
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