Jesus being the only way to come to God the Father and that includes prayer (
John 14:6 KJV ) so that when the Son gives our intercessions and the Spirit's unspeakable intercessions, and His own intercessions to the Father, when the Father says yes to any of those intercessions, only the Son answers the prayers.
John 14:13-14 KJV This is done according to the will of God so that the Father may be glorified in the Son for answers to prayers which is why we give thanks to the Father in Jesus's name.
Actually, you did not.
Repeating now my quote from which you had replied below.
"So the Holy Spirit has intercessions for us but He cannot utter them. Jesus knows the mind of the Spirit to give the unspeakable intercessions of the Spirit's to the Father for Him.
That is why I do not believe the tongues today used for "prayer life" is of Him, especially when it is gained as most tongue speakers testify of by a second blessing which is a receiving of the Holy Spirit apart from salvation."
It is not man's logic when scripture of John 16:13 KJV or any Bible version testifies that the Holy Spirit cannot utter His own intercessions Himself.
There is no other use of tongues in Acts 2 other than to declare the wonderful works of God in foreign languages to devout Jews from every nation under the heaven.
I would consider this as using man's logic in trying to justify the baby's babble for your prayer tongue as well as testifying that if believers do not have this prayer language, then they do not have the Holy Spirit and thus they are not saved because you just said that is what it means to be born again as evidence of speaking in a baby's babble. Reads to me that all you are doing is making a case in sowing insecurities towards believers that do not speak in tongues about wondering if they have the Holy Spirit or not.
So far, you are using tongues to separate yourself from other non-tongue speaking believers as if saying, look at what I have that you don't have. How is that an example of God's love towards the body of Christ? Whereas manifesting tongues in one member and the interpretation of that tongue in another is an example of God's love & action towards the body of Christ.
And how can it profit the individual tongue speaker as a prayer tongue when he knows not what He had prayed for to even know if God had answered His prayers?
Matthew 6:7 But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking. 8 Be not ye therefore like unto them: for your Father knoweth what things ye have need of, before ye ask him.
So why would the Holy Spirit be like the heathen in praying as they do in babble nonsense and for a good long time without letting you know what was prayed for?
Since the Father knows before we had asked in prayer, what need for the Holy Spirit to pray for you verbally since not every believer speaks in tongues? Is that not another example of lack of God's love towards every believer? Is not tongues for a prayer life a show of favoritism in the body of Christ apart from other believers that do not speak in tongues?
So tongues for private use is not being manifested by the Holy Spirit because it is not done in Christ's love.