Kirby D. P.
Member
- Joined
- May 12, 2015
- Messages
- 393
Hello. Friendly atheist here. I believe any of the moderators who recall my visits over the last several months will confirm I remain respectful, and that I am here to seek your opinions, not to convert you to my faithlessness.
Also, though I admit it is a stubborn block to move, I promise I am willing to be convinced into faith, so I hope that opportunity to save one wayward soul offsets any energy you spend to answer my queries.
Anyhoo, today I have been thinking about God’s omnipotence.
First, let me say I am familiar with the worn-out arguments atheists like me usually make and I know where they usually come to an impasse in dialog with most Christians:
Atheist: Can God make a square with three sides (the immovable object argument)?
Christian: No. God cannot logically be expected to do that which is not logically consistent. A square, by definition, has four sides. God can make a square with THREE sides, but only by first redefining a square as a three-sided object.
OK
Atheist: If God is all-powerful, is it possible for God to do evil?
Christian: No. By definition, what God does IS good. If you find it disagreeable or “evil,” it is because either (A) it is only “evil” from your selfish perspective or (B) you have no means by which to judge the ultimate good of any act by God in the scheme of the vast cosmos. It may SEEM honestly evil to you, but that is no fault of God, but an artifact of your imperfect perception of His design.
Fair enough.
But today occurred to me one (and then a number of) thing(s) that seem to fall into a grey area between the notion of an omnipotent God and things that are illogically meaningless.
For the sake of argument, let’s stipulate that humans can do evil though God cannot because, since at least the Fall in Eden (though probably earlier… probably since the creation of Man), these are inherently qualities that define and distinguish God from human: God is the only entity which only does good, human is that which is prone to evil.
But here are some hypothetical situations that occur to me whose solutions are not so clear, and I wanted any opinion any of you have to offer:
1. Can God destroy Himself?
2. Is God capable of regret?
3. Can God create another, separate god?
4. Can God create and tend, simultaneously, more than one Universe at a time? If so, what is the nature of the existence which can contain multiple universes?
5. Can God (who, at least in part, exists outside the natural universe as its uncreated creator, superimposed over all dimensions including the dimension of time) change his mind AND can any human affect God’s mind to change it?
This last question, for me, seems to hold the most profound implications, for everything from God’s decision to cause the Flood to the purpose and efficacy of intercessory prayer.
(In fact, it was Saturday’s bulletin from administrator Chad about the importance of intercessory prayer that got me thinking about this.)
Now, God SEEMS to be accessible to bargaining (ie, prone to suasion) when discussing the fate of Sodom and Gomorra with Lot, or deciding the fate of the Hebrews who forsake faith in Him at the foot of Sinai, or His license for Satan to meddle in the affairs of the house of Job.
I understand that, perhaps, God is simultaneously co-existent along every moment in the timeline of these events and knew, before their outset, how they would each resolve.
BUT, if that is the case, and each of these (and all) moral situations are simply means by which God tests humans through their free will, with advance knowledge of the outcome, then isn’t God bound and constrained by the his pre-ordained responses to those freely chosen human acts?
I guess what I’m saying is: if humans have free will, and God exists (at least in part) outside of time, and knows all that time holds, does that not mean that God Himself does NOT have free will?
If there is a cosmic system of justice that punishes sin and rewards piety, doesn’t this limit God and constrain Him in ways to which beings with true free will are immune?
When I boil it down to its most distilled framing:
Doesn’t free will among either God or humans make free will for the other impossible?
I don’t put this out there as any kind of “gotchya zinger.” I’m sure if I read enough Thomas Aquinas and St. Augustine, etc., I’ll find cogent answers to this conundrum. In fact, I’m kind of counting on Chad to weigh in. But I am interested in what any of you who have taken the time to read this far have to say.
Thanks for your time. With hope that I have not offended,
Kirby
Also, though I admit it is a stubborn block to move, I promise I am willing to be convinced into faith, so I hope that opportunity to save one wayward soul offsets any energy you spend to answer my queries.
Anyhoo, today I have been thinking about God’s omnipotence.
First, let me say I am familiar with the worn-out arguments atheists like me usually make and I know where they usually come to an impasse in dialog with most Christians:
Atheist: Can God make a square with three sides (the immovable object argument)?
Christian: No. God cannot logically be expected to do that which is not logically consistent. A square, by definition, has four sides. God can make a square with THREE sides, but only by first redefining a square as a three-sided object.
OK
Atheist: If God is all-powerful, is it possible for God to do evil?
Christian: No. By definition, what God does IS good. If you find it disagreeable or “evil,” it is because either (A) it is only “evil” from your selfish perspective or (B) you have no means by which to judge the ultimate good of any act by God in the scheme of the vast cosmos. It may SEEM honestly evil to you, but that is no fault of God, but an artifact of your imperfect perception of His design.
Fair enough.
But today occurred to me one (and then a number of) thing(s) that seem to fall into a grey area between the notion of an omnipotent God and things that are illogically meaningless.
For the sake of argument, let’s stipulate that humans can do evil though God cannot because, since at least the Fall in Eden (though probably earlier… probably since the creation of Man), these are inherently qualities that define and distinguish God from human: God is the only entity which only does good, human is that which is prone to evil.
But here are some hypothetical situations that occur to me whose solutions are not so clear, and I wanted any opinion any of you have to offer:
1. Can God destroy Himself?
2. Is God capable of regret?
3. Can God create another, separate god?
4. Can God create and tend, simultaneously, more than one Universe at a time? If so, what is the nature of the existence which can contain multiple universes?
5. Can God (who, at least in part, exists outside the natural universe as its uncreated creator, superimposed over all dimensions including the dimension of time) change his mind AND can any human affect God’s mind to change it?
This last question, for me, seems to hold the most profound implications, for everything from God’s decision to cause the Flood to the purpose and efficacy of intercessory prayer.
(In fact, it was Saturday’s bulletin from administrator Chad about the importance of intercessory prayer that got me thinking about this.)
Now, God SEEMS to be accessible to bargaining (ie, prone to suasion) when discussing the fate of Sodom and Gomorra with Lot, or deciding the fate of the Hebrews who forsake faith in Him at the foot of Sinai, or His license for Satan to meddle in the affairs of the house of Job.
I understand that, perhaps, God is simultaneously co-existent along every moment in the timeline of these events and knew, before their outset, how they would each resolve.
BUT, if that is the case, and each of these (and all) moral situations are simply means by which God tests humans through their free will, with advance knowledge of the outcome, then isn’t God bound and constrained by the his pre-ordained responses to those freely chosen human acts?
I guess what I’m saying is: if humans have free will, and God exists (at least in part) outside of time, and knows all that time holds, does that not mean that God Himself does NOT have free will?
If there is a cosmic system of justice that punishes sin and rewards piety, doesn’t this limit God and constrain Him in ways to which beings with true free will are immune?
When I boil it down to its most distilled framing:
Doesn’t free will among either God or humans make free will for the other impossible?
I don’t put this out there as any kind of “gotchya zinger.” I’m sure if I read enough Thomas Aquinas and St. Augustine, etc., I’ll find cogent answers to this conundrum. In fact, I’m kind of counting on Chad to weigh in. But I am interested in what any of you who have taken the time to read this far have to say.
Thanks for your time. With hope that I have not offended,
Kirby