Do you believe that the laws that King Josiah found, were corrupted as well, ...?
Where are these laws that King Josiah (technically Hilkiah) found? Where would I go to read them?
I am not a scholar of Hebrew history. But I do know that the Hebrews acknowledge only one TORAH.
Are you saying there are two TORAHs?
And Hilkiah the high priest said unto Shaphan the scribe, I have found the book of the law in the house of the LORD. And Hilkiah gave the book to Shaphan, and he read it.
(2 Kings 22:8 KJV)
And it came to pass, when the king had heard the words of the book of the law, that he rent his clothes. And the king commanded Hilkiah the priest, and Ahikam the son of Shaphan, and Achbor the son of Michaiah, and Shaphan the scribe, and Asahiah a servant of the king's, saying, Go ye, enquire of the LORD for me, and for the people, and for all Judah, concerning the words of this book that is found: for great is the wrath of the LORD that is kindled against us, because our fathers have not hearkened unto the words of this book, to do according unto all that which is written concerning us.
(2 Kings 22:11-13 KJV)
So Hilkiah the priest, and Ahikam, and Achbor, and Shaphan, and Asahiah,
went unto Huldah the prophetess, the wife of Shallum the son of Tikvah, the son of Harhas, keeper of the wardrobe; (now she dwelt in Jerusalem in the college
and they communed with her. And she said unto them, Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, Tell the man that sent you to me,
Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will bring evil upon this place, and upon the inhabitants thereof, even all the words of the book which the king of Judah hath read:
(2 Kings 22:14-16 KJV)
If the words were not corrupted, why would Jehovah bring evil upon "all the words of the book"? (Note, it doesn't say "all the words
from the book.")
But whatever one might see as the TORAH,
How can you say, "We are wise, and the TORAH (law) of the LORD is with us," when, in fact, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie?
(Jeremiah 8:8 NRSV)
What Lie would that be?
For in the day that I brought your ancestors out of the land of Egypt, I did not speak to them or command them concerning burnt offerings and sacrifices.
(Jeremiah 7:22 NRSV)
The only "law" (instruction) that stands uncorrupted is that which Jesus preached, and those instructions command that we pray to the Father for the Forgiveness of sin. Who is it that would deny the instructions of Jesus and the sovereignty of the Father to Forgive Sin? Claiming that the Father demands blood payment for sin?
Either Jesus is your Messiah and Lord, or he is not.
"But why do you call Me 'Lord, Lord,' and not do the things which I say?
(Luke 6:46 NKJV)
God Bless,
Rhema