I see that He died for ALL as your post references this in 2 different verses mentioned. Romans 5:18 says the same thing, and so does 1 John 2:2.
So if he died for ALL how is it that we still hold a doctrine of eternal damnation? Or is this spiritual language that is misunderstood?
And to add to this, is it even possible that God took the sin of Adam to be more powerful than the willing surrender of His Son to the death of the cross in that any would not, could not,
or should not eventually be saved? As He took upon Him the sin of the entire world, from the very first sin to the last.
How therefore, is anyone responsible for their own salvation as He secured that for the same ALL that had been condemned by God. "As He hath concluded them ALL in unbelief, that He might
have mercy upon ALL." Romans 11:32
To answer your question, I see salvation of ALL men from Adam to whoever is last to be saved. As His death paid the price for ALL as no man can add to what he did for we have no
righteousness of our own, and self righteousness is unacceptable in Gods sight.
To quote scripture to support the first statement:
1 Co 15:21 "For since by man came death, by man also came the resurrection of the dead." These both are decrees of God as He set the parameters for the actions of both outcomes.
sin unto death, and righteousness unto life for ALL men period. Though only 2 men were involved in the judgements that were decreed upon ALL men by the Father.
22-"For as in Adam ALL die, even so in Christ shall ALL be made alive."
23- "But EVERY MAN IN HIS OWN ORDER..................
This is the truth that sets one free. When Jesus proclaimed "it is finished" it was and is for He secured salvation for ALL men just as Adam had secured death for ALL men.
Both actions were by the design of the Father, for if the first decree had not been made there would have been no need for the second. But since Jesus was foreordained the first
had to be made. Adam had to fail. So Jesus could succeed.