You have completely changed the meaning of inspired. Inspired does not mean authored or spoken, it means inspired. People get inspired by something than produce something.
Obviously, you have failed to define “inspiration” here.
The root of in
spiration is
spirit. What does the word of God say about in
spiration?
When a Greek word is defined in a lexicon, it is invariably the Greek word in the corrupt Greek text of Westcott-Hort, Nestle-Aland and the United Bible Society, not the Greek word seen in Received Text Bibles and any edition of the
Textus Receptus. Since most who use these tools do not know the differences between these two text types
at every point and cannot
really read the Greek words, they will be unaware that they are being given the definition of the
wrong Greek word! For example, Rev. 15:3 says, “King of saints” in the KJB and the Received Text. The corrupt texts and modern versions say either “King of ages” or “King of nations.” Therefore the lexicon’s definition will be given for the Greek word
aion (e.g. ages, NIV) or
ethnos (e.g. nations, NASB), not the Greek word,
hagios (saints, KJB). For this reason alone, all lexicons and Bible study ‘helps’ should be buried to prevent the spread of their deadly hazards. This includes all lexicons, as well as all Greek grammar books. Complete autopsies of their dead works are available to the truth seeker.
Interlinear authors and many others are confusing the original Greek and Hebrew with the ENGLISH words in the corrupt lexicons and grammars that they use. For example, Newberry (Berry’s (Newberry’s) Interlinear) speaks of the “beauties, accuracies, and perfections of the Inspired Original,” contrasted with what he calls the “ordinary English Bible.” He repeatedly hammers about the “dull” English as opposed to the “rich” original language. (Newberry, pp. 667, 937) However, now that the bait is on the hook, it is time for the switch. He switches the Greek and Hebrew text for an ENGLISH lexicon written by an unsaved liberal, who translated a German Lexicon, which originated with a Latin-Greek one. How does Newberry expect to give a literal translation of what he refers to as the “perfections of the Inspired Originals,” using the ENGLISH of corrupt lexicons?
The choice remains: whose
English words will you trust - the English words in lexicons written by unsaved liberals or the
English words in the Holy Bible? Both are
English. The answer is logical. No “scripture is of any private interpretation” (2 Peter 1:19-21). The words “interpretation” and “interpreted” are used in the New Testament to mean translation or translated, ‘going from one language to another.’ Observe all of the New Testament usages:
- Matt. 1:23 “Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.”
- Mark 5:41 “Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise.”
- Mark 15:22 “Golgatha, which is, being interpreted, The place of a skull.”
- Mark 15:34 “Eloi, Eloi, lama Sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?”
- John 1:38 “Rabbi, (which is to say, being interpreted, Master)”
- John 1:41 “Messias, which is, being interpreted, the Christ.”
- Acts 4:36 “Barnabas, (which is, being interpreted, The son of consolation)”
- John 1:42 “Cephas, which is by interpretation, A stone”
- John 9:7 “Siloam, (which is by interpretation, Sent)”
- Acts 9:36 “Tabitha, which by interpretation is called Doreas”
- Acts 13:8 “Elymas the sorcerer (for so is his name by interpretation)”
- 1 Cor. 12:10 “to another the interpretation of tongues:”
- 1 Cor. 14:26 “...hath an interpretation...”
- Heb. 7:1, 2 “For this Melchisedec, king of
Salem...first being by interpretation King of righteousness and after that also King of Salem, which is King of
peace...”
All of these
uniform usages establish the New Testament meaning of ‘interpretation.’ It will not change now in its last usage in 2 Peter 1:19-21. It still means to go from one language to another. (In the New Testament ‘interpretation’ does
not mean ‘what someone ‘thinks’ a verse means.’)
“We
have also a more sure
word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: Knowing this first, that
no prophecy of the scripture is of any
private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of an: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.” (2 Peter 1:19-21).
The precedence was established that only one could interpret.
- 1 Cor. 12:30, 14:27 “do all interpret?...
let one interpret.”
Therefore one Holy Bible for each language is THE interpreter.
The Bible’s built-in dictionary is defining “prophecy” as “word” or “scripture.” Using the New Testament’s usage of “interpretation,” it appears that since the original “scripture” came “as they were moved by the Holy Ghost,” then its interpretation (translation) cannot be “private,” or “by the will of man,” but also must be “by the Holy Ghost” (Acts 2). The latter portion of the verse is not speaking directly of written scripture, since it says, “men of God spake,” not wrote. But God is making a parallel which indicates that the “interpretation” (translation) of “scripture” is not to be private, as seen in lexicons. If there ever was a verse that inferred the direct intervention of God in the translation of the Bible, this is it. Acts 2 reiterates.
“Do not interpretations belong to God?” (Gen. 40: 8)
Studying the
English Bible will reveal how God uses English words to speak to the English reader’s mind and heart. A lengthy trip to the libraries of Greece, via Germany and Rome is not necessary. The Holy Bible is a living book, and like all living things, it lives in the light of daily use, not in dusty libraries. Newberry charges,
“In the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures there are precisions, perfections, and beauties which cannot be reproduced in any translation.”
Yet how is his “translation” in Berry’s Interlinear or Berry’s lexicon, not imperfect like the “translation” in a Holy Bible? It is an English translation also. Someone is not thinking. After nearly 1000 years of English Bibles, why would the only perfect “translations” of words still be in interlinears and lexicons and not in a Bible? Historically the only one who clams to be the
interpreter of the Bible is the Catholic church. Hmmmmmm. That rebellious spirit, which would usurp the authority of God’s one interpreter - the Holy Bible, is not exclusive to the hierarchy of the Catholic system, but is also driving those who wrote and use lexicons and interlinears.
What are you talking about? Textus Receptus is widely available. Why do you believe that is the 'original Greek'. Textus Receptus comes from older manuscripts that used more modern Greek. It was also reverse translated from the Vulgate.
Tell us who the ‘editor’ is of
your Textus Receptus and I will document here a mechanism by which you have come under deception.
I don't see how knowing the original language is checking the bible for errors. Different translations are just different translations, ways of expressing the same thing.
“Original language”??? God doesn’t care about any “original language,” so why should we?
The topic of Bible inspiration and infallibility can only be discussed with reference to actual words and verses. A
fog of emotional steam, that carries no substance, precedes comments such as, 'I don't believe the KJV corrects 'the original
Greek' or 'I don't believe the KJV corrects the 'Majority Text' or the ‘
Textus Receptus.’ The desire to
appear intelligent or superior by referring to 'the Greek' and downplaying the common man's Bible, exposes a naivety concerning textual history and those documents which today's pseudo-intellectuals call
'the critical text,'
'the original Greek,'
the 'Majority Text,' or
the ‘Textus Receptus.’
As for me and my house, we will serve the Lord. (
Jos 24:15 KJB)
