My logic is not great, but I believe that for the logical statement
If a deed is outside of Christ then it gains you nothing in the Kingdom of God.
the contra-positive is
If a deed gains you something in the Kingdom of God, then it is in Christ.
RJ's comments are consistent with the rest of the John 15. There is unconditional grace - "while we were still sinners Christ died for us", and there is conditional grace - "If you keep my commands, you will remain in my love". It is still grace because it is undeserved, but it is grace that is given with conditions.
I could promise to take my son to a football match, but insist he tidies his room before we go. That's a gift, given with a condition.
You're definitely not too far off, Hek. But you're still just far off enough. Allow me to assist you, if it please. This was how I understood RJ's initial statement...
If a person is not in Christ AND if said person's deeds are good, than said person does not gain (or gains not, if you prefer) the Kingdom of God.
A quick overview of Logic symbols...
^...................................................................AND
v...................................................................OR
~...................................................................NOT/Negation of
=>................................................................Implies/Then
P, R, Q...........................................................Variables used for premises and conclusions
P(t), R(t), Q(t)......................................Statements P, R, Q are True. Applies to ~P, ~R, ~Q, as well.
P(f), R(f), Q(f).......................................Statements P, R, Q are False. Applies to ~P, ~R, ~Q, as well.
I am not insulting your intelligence, as I am sure you have a greater understanding of logic than you would ever be willing to admit. I am just trying to make sure that anyone who reads this will be able to understand everything that follows.
According to RJ's statement we have two premises in the form of an "and" statement...(P and R), or rather
(P ^ R). Here, RJ's premises are "person not in Christ (P)" and "person's deeds are good (R). The negation of this statement, which will end up being the conclusion of our contra-postitive, is NOT(P ^ R), or rather, ~(P ^ R)...Which is logically equivalent to
(~P v ~R). I hope you don't think I just pulled that equivalence out of my nether region. I encourage you to check me, if you doubt. Doubt is how we arrive at truth, after all.
So we have...
P: Person not in Christ.
Hence, the negation would be...
~P: Person not not in Christ.
I'm fairly certain that you already understand how double negatives behave, so you'll understand how ~P becomes
~P: Person is in Christ.
For our second premise, the second half of our "AND" statement...
R: Person's deeds are good.
So the negation of R would be...
~R: Person's deeds are not good...or rather...Person's deeds are evil.
Moving on, the conclusion,
Q, is "Person gains not the Kingdom of God.
No need for explanation here, as Q is pretty straightforward. The negation of Q, that is ~Q, which will end up becoming the premise of our contra-positive is therefore, "Person does not gain not the Kingdom of God." Again, I'm sure you already understand how double negatives behave, so you'll understand why
~Q is easily translated into "Person gains the Kingdom of God."
Therefore, RJ's original statement is...
(P ^ R) => Q
If a person is not in Christ AND person's actions are good, then person gains not the Kingdom of God.
The Contra-positive and logically equivalent statement is, therefore,
~Q => (~P v ~R)
If a person gains the Kingdom of God, then said person is in Christ, or said person's actions are evil.
I know what you're thinking...surely my logic is messed up somewhere...but I assure you, my logic is flawless. If there's something you disagree with in the contra-positive, it is because the statement from whence I drew the contra-positive was flawed initially.
The beautiful thing about "OR" statements in logic is that they do not entail mutual exclusivity.
For example, [~P(t) v ~R(f)] is a true statement, because at least one is true.
Likewise, [~P(f) v ~R(t)] is a true statement, because, again, at least one condition is true.
Not only that, but [~P(t) v ~R(t)] is just as true as an "AND" statement would be in were the v flipped upside-down.
The only case in which an "OR" statement can be called false occurs when [~P(f) v ~R(f)]
So dislike it as you might, according to RJ's original statement, and the derivation of the contra-positive...
1.) If a person gains the Kingdom of God [~Q(t)], then said person IS in Christ (Where "In Christ" is true) OR said person's deeds are good (Where "deeds are evil" is false).
Or
2.) If a person gains the Kingdom of God [~Q(t)], then said person IS NOT in Christ (Where "In Christ" is False) OR said person's deeds are evil (Where "deeds are evil" is True).
Or
3.) If a person gains the Kingdom of God [~Q(t)], the said person IS in Christ (Where "In Christ" is True) OR said person's deeds are evil (Where "deeds are evil" is True).
Would all be factual, logically
true, and valid statements.
Only...
If a person gains the Kingdom of God [~Q(t)], then said person IS NOT in Christ (Where "In Christ" is False) OR said person's deeds are good (Where "deeds are evil" is False).
Would be a contradictory and logically unsound, and thus,
False statement.
I know this is long and arduous, but surely we must have an understanding of the implications of claims that certain people make.
This is why, according to what RJ claimed, I asked, "If I am in Christ, why should I bother not sinning?" According to his initial statement, and possible contra-positives thereof, it is possible to gain the Kingdom of God, while being "In Christ" and committing "Evil deeds" (3). In fact, according to the logic that follows RJ's statement, it's possible to be outside of Christ, and perform wicked deeds while still gaining the Kingdom of God (2). Tragic, I know. But this whole thing is really just an exercise to demonstrate how horrendously contradictory RJ's initial statement is. It is not my unbelief, but logic that my question was founded upon.
I believe the can of worms or witch's brew, if you prefer, that RJ has opened with his claim is still present.