There is only one gospel taught by the unseen Holy Father the one good teaching master.I believe you are clueless and have no idea about what I'm saying.
No gospel of the apostles like Jesus our brother in the Lord, dying mankind.
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SignUp Now!There is only one gospel taught by the unseen Holy Father the one good teaching master.I believe you are clueless and have no idea about what I'm saying.
No, I have not. (Might you list one as an example?) I'm fairly sure that I well understand what you've written. You've made a differentiation of two Gospels based upon race (Jew and Gentile). A differentiation based upon race is racism by definition, not assumption. But I can see where that might irk your emotions.You have made a great deal of assumptions:
I have not. When I ask questions, they are questions, not judgments in the form of a question. But you have made some rather startling statements that I've found to be contradictory, and I am truly trying to understand your faith. Please read through my last post without imputing condemnation. It's not there. But you did present parts of Jesus' Gospel as being only valid while He was on earth. How does one identify which parts to cut out and which parts to leave in?and have judged me and passed sentence.
Intimate: to make clear what you think or want without saying it directly:My reply was not complete as I intimated, it is still a work in progress,
This sounds much more like your previous "Goodbye" instead of "I'll need some more time to complete my reply because I'm thinking some things over." Again, it sounds more like, "I'm going to leave this alone." rather than "I'm working on it."* I have to leave this here for the moment, Rhema.
My request specified no such thing as "you, a gentile believer." I did not discriminate nor differentiate between Jew and Gentile. If the teachings of Jesus don't apply to all humans, then they apply to none, as:I search for the Scriptures within the words of The Lord Jesus Christ which refer to the forgiveness of sins as it applies to me, as a gentile believer, as you requested.
But my entire last post was a relevant verse, and instead of continuing with the Socratic Method, I posted my witness. I don't know how I could make this more clear:Perhaps you can point me to a relevant verse.
... rather than the teachings of Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice).I can show you why my sins were forgiven using only the words of the Lord Jesus.
After this manner therefore PRAY (written in the Imperative Mood to signify a command) Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. ... And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.- Matthew 6:9, 12 KJV
But if one objects to the word "debt" ....
And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.- Luke 11:4 KJV
My sins have been forgiven because I've asked the Father TO forgive them, placing my faith in the LOGOS (Teachings) of Jesus.
I am truly sorry that I offended you. Quite a number of posts ago I acknowledged that your Saviour had "received" you. I just wanted to know why you believe all your sins were forgiven as opposed to being "paid for."but I will not sit under your condemnation, when my Saviour has received me.
In the truth of the Teaching of Jesus,In Christ Jesus
Chris
Hello @Rhema, reply #397
Thank you for your response.
* You asked me in a previous post, to show you WHY my sins were forgiven, using only the words of the Lord Jesus in the gospels. Though I know that the ministry of the Lord Jesus Christ did not end at His death, but continued after His ascension, through the ministry of those whom He appointed: but I believe that you require that I answer with the words of the Lord spoken during His earthly ministry (i.e.,from the gospel record)..
* In regard to the subject of forgiveness of sins, we must remember that the words spoken were obviously spoken prior to His sacrificial offering of Himself, as The Lamb of God, which said John the Baptist, 'taketh away the sin of the world.' (John 1:9) .
* Mat 6:12 ' And forgive (G863 - aphiēmi) us our debts (G3783), as we forgive our debtors.' This appears to be the first usage of the word, 'forgive' in the gospels: The word having the meaning:-
aphiēmiFrom G575 and ἵημι hiēmi [to send; an intensive form of εἶμι eimi (to go)]; to send forth, in various applicationsTranslated variously as: - cry, forgive, forsake, lay aside, leave, let (alone, be, go, have), omit, put (send) away, remit, suffer, yield up.
* Forgiveness was conditional during the Lord's earthly ministry.
'For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you:
But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.
(Mat 6:14-15)
* I, as a gentile, would have been 'without God', and 'without Christ' and 'without hope in the world' at that time. The door was only opened to gentiles in Acts 10, and that was only to make Israel jealous ( Romans 11:11) .Salvation was only sent to the Gentile, apart from Israel, after Acts 28:28. 'Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.'
* I have to leave this here for the moment, Rhema.
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
* No, I do not nullify the Teachings of Jesus. There is no racism either! However sometimes it is necessary to distinguish to whom something is spoken or written, in order to ensure that we do not wrongly apply a statement written or spoken by the Lord Jesus Christ, or any anyone else in Scripture.No man also having drunk old wine straightway desireth new: for he saith, The old is better.- Luke 5:39 KJVThis isn't hard. I am perplexed as to why my question confuses you.The thing is, do we now nullify the Teachings of Jesus? Pauline Christians dispense with the Teachings of Jesus as being irrelevant to one's salvation. You do this by means of racism - Jew v. Gentile, a concept that even Paul rejected. While Jesus may have been sent first to the Jew, the Truth that he taught came from God for the whole World.
* That cannot be used as a support text for WHY I was forgiven for my sins, (ie., The question you asked)But since it seems that you really do reject (nullify) the Teachings of Jesus, then his (Jesus) command to PRAY can just be ignored. However, I can show you why my sins were forgiven using only the words of the Lord Jesus.After this manner therefore PRAY (written in the Imperative Mood to signify a command) Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. ... And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.- Matthew 6:9, 12 KJV
* Yes, I too asked God to forgive me for my sins.But if you object to the word "debt" ....And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil.- Luke 11:4 KJVMy sins have been forgiven because I've asked the Father TO forgive them, placing my faith in the LOGOS (Teachings) of Jesus.Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:- Acts 13:38 KJV(Ahh... but I forget you think this applies only to Jews.)It would seem that Forgiveness through Repentance is not part of your faith, since...
* I don't know where you got this idea. I believe all that is written in the Word of God.So then your "Gospel" removes these words of Christ himself because they were "earthly." In the name of Jesus, your belief removes the words of Jesus? Where does one stop removing? Everything the Lord ever said was during his Earthly Ministry.
* I don't know what you are referring to.I can see why you would no longer wish to even think about the true Gospel that Jesus taught.
* I have removed nothing.Once more, then, you have removed part of the Teaching of Jesus, thereby rejecting the Gospel that He taught. Is that wise?
* I have removed nothing, merely quoted the words of John the Baptist, which I believed had relevanceConsider, though. Here, you have removed Jesus' teaching about the forgiveness of sins based on the phrase "Lamb of God" attributed to John the Baptist in the Gospel named John. So why is this phrase not found in Mark? Why is it missing in Luke? Why hadn't Matthew recorded John the Baptist teaching this since it is SO important that it literally has caused you to remove words from the Gospel of Christ Jesus?
* I can't comment on this because I do not understand what you are saying or why?If one is actually allowed to look at what is written, the Gospel named John is problematic. "John" states that Jesus was crucified during the time when the Passover Lambs were killed. Yet Matthew, Mark, and Luke clearly have Jesus eating the Passover meal. Well, it's hard to eat the Passover meal when one is dead. Whoever wrote John (and you'll find it's Lazarus if you look closely) was so enamored with the epiphany that Jesus was the Passover Lamb (something that Jesus never, ever taught), that he changed the narrative of the crucifixion.
* This is totally confusing.This turns the Forgiveness of Sin by the Father through repentance (the very Gospel that Jesus and Peter taught) into a Payment for Sin by this "shed blood of Christ." Why would anyone turn the Son of God into a human blood sacrifice offered to the gods? (Okay, just one God.)But I do understand why you would not like to continue. I would, though, like you to ask yourself -How can you forgive a debt that's been paid?And how can one pay a debt that's been forgiven?In the Truth of the Lord's teaching,Rhema
Hello @Rhema.No, I have not. (Might you list one as an example?) I'm fairly sure that I well understand what you've written. You've made a differentiation of two Gospels based upon race (Jew and Gentile). A differentiation based upon race is racism by definition, not assumption. But I can see where that might irk your emotions.
* That was not my intent.I have not. When I ask questions, they are questions, not judgments in the form of a question. But you have made some rather startling statements that I've found to be contradictory, and I am truly trying to understand your faith. Please read through my last post without imputing condemnation. It's not there. But you did present parts of Jesus' Gospel as being only valid while He was on earth. How does one identify which parts to cut out and which parts to leave in?
* I would love to continue discussing this with you, but we do not appear to be able to communicate.Intimate: to make clear what you think or want without saying it directly:
My apologies, I guess I need things said directly, since I don't like making assumptions. But here is what you actually said:
This sounds much more like your previous "Goodbye" instead of "I'll need some more time to complete my reply because I'm thinking some things over." Again, it sounds more like, "I'm going to leave this alone." rather than "I'm working on it."
* At this present time, in the body of Christ there is no such distinction, but that was not always so.My request specified no such thing as "you, a gentile believer." I did not discriminate nor differentiate between Jew and Gentile. If the teachings of Jesus don't apply to all humans, then they apply to none, as:
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.- Galatians 3:28 KJV
Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.- Colossians 3:11 KJV
* If that is the question, then I can answer it, but not necessarily provide a scripture as you requested (from the words of the Lord Jesus Christ). You have provided one that you believe is an adequate Scripture, from the Lord's prayer: I did not think of that; but I thank you for bringing it to my attention.But my entire last post was a relevant verse, and instead of continuing with the Socratic Method, I posted my witness. I don't know how I could make this more clear:
... rather than the teachings of Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice).
I am truly sorry that I offended you. Quite a number of posts ago I acknowledged that your Saviour had "received" you. I just wanted to know why you believe all your sins were forgiven as opposed to being "paid for."
In the truth of the Teaching of Jesus,
Rhema
How does Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice) .differ ? Human blood sacrifice cannibalisms?But my entire last post was a relevant verse, and instead of continuing with the Socratic Method, I posted my witness. I don't know how I could make this more clear:
... rather than the teachings of Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice).
'In Whom we have redemption (G629) through His blood,@Rhema,
I just wanted to know why you believe all your sins were forgiven as opposed to being "paid for."
'But the children of the kingdomJohn 3:19 And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.
Hell is known as outer darkness.
2Th_2:10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
God loves man so much he lets him choose his future.
Jesus uses the term “outer darkness” in the parable to describe a condition of great sorrow, loss and woe. It stands in vivid contrast to the brightly lit and joyous celebration attended by those who accepted the king’s invitation. Interpreting the wedding feast as heaven, the “outer darkness” must be the place of eternal punishment. Most Bible scholars agree that the phrase “outer darkness” refers to hell or, more properly, the lake of fire (Matthew 8:12; 13:42; 13:50; and 25:30,41).'But the children of the kingdom
shall be cast out into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.8:12)
'Then said the king to the servants,
Bind him hand and foot, and take him away,
and cast him into outer darkness;
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.22:13)
'And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'
(Matt.25:30)
Hello @Curtis,
The words, 'outer darkness', in each of the verses above refer to the outside of 'The Kingdom of Heaven', it does not refer to Hell. The Kingdom of Heaven descends to the earth. 'Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.' (Mat 6:10)
'Not every one that saith unto Me, Lord, Lord,
shall enter into the kingdom of heaven;
but he that doeth the will of My Father which is in heaven.'
(Mat 7:21)
' ... ... What shall we do,
that we might work the works of God?
'Jesus answered and said unto them,
This is the work of God,
that ye believe on Him Whom He hath sent.'
(Joh 6:28b-29)
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Hello @Curtis,Jesus uses the term “outer darkness” in the parable to describe a condition of great sorrow, loss and woe. It stands in vivid contrast to the brightly lit and joyous celebration attended by those who accepted the king’s invitation. Interpreting the wedding feast as heaven, the “outer darkness” must be the place of eternal punishment. Most Bible scholars agree that the phrase “outer darkness” refers to hell or, more properly, the lake of fire (Matthew 8:12; 13:42; 13:50; and 25:30,41).
From "Got Questions"
Hello @Curtis,Jesus uses the term “outer darkness” in the parable to describe a condition of great sorrow, loss and woe. It stands in vivid contrast to the brightly lit and joyous celebration attended by those who accepted the king’s invitation. Interpreting the wedding feast as heaven, the “outer darkness” must be the place of eternal punishment. Most Bible scholars agree that the phrase “outer darkness” refers to hell or, more properly, the lake of fire (Matthew 8:12; 13:42; 13:50; and 25:30,41).
From "Got Questions"
When did the tribes lose an ongoing descent or birth record" ?Scythians are the Lost Tribe of Israelites that travelled west and settled England as Christians.
Meanwhile outside your asylum there are plenty of historical records including one called THE BIBLE. I suggest you buy one and stop making a fool of yourself.When did the tribes lose an ongoing descent or birth record" ?
Was Jesus the son of man who become the first born again son of God the last recorded?
How can we trace back all of the tribes. . .if the way is lost
Today 57 varieties all the nation makes up the one nation called Christian
[Rom 10:17 KJV] 17 So then faith [cometh] by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.Who would be preaching the gospel in the 7-years if the entire church had already been raptured?
Meanwhile outside your asylum there are plenty of historical records including one called THE BIBLE. I suggest you buy one and stop making a fool of yourself.
Humans are not animals. It is well known within Judaism (for millennia) that God prohibits human sacrifices, and that this was the lesson taught to Abraham over the sacrifice of Issac.How does Moses (animal sacrifice) or Paul (human blood sacrifice) .differ ?
It ought to have been written..., "You must have meant ..." Is this sufficient proof?Thanks for the reply. I would suggest you prove I am a fool.
You must of meant exclusively one the Bible
The goal of Satan is to achieve eternal life for himself. Period.The goal of Satan to deceive the world the Son of man is the King of kings and not his Father not seen the true King of earthly kings
Just to note that the actual Greek text reads... "born from the beginning."Jesus in John 3 reminds us we must be born again from above.
Most are not sealed. They just think they are - as if some invisible, intangible magic wand is merely waved over them regardless of the absence of evidence.So, then if one comes to faith and believes; how are they sealed by the Holy Spirit as we are now?
Thank-you Dylan for your insightful answer to my question.Most are not sealed. They just think they are - as if some invisible, intangible magic wand is merely waved over them regardless of the absence of evidence.
Rhema
Sorry for the late reply, but my eye just noticed this.God doesn't have human or emotional bias that would bend the rules.
You have to buy your way into heaven?The Ticketmaster (God) has no bias.