Reba1
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not in my view...In that way our understanding comes from the father not the Son of man Jesus. a creation
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SignUp Now!not in my view...In that way our understanding comes from the father not the Son of man Jesus. a creation
not in my view...
your post brings this passage to mind ..It would seem to be his view . If we do not learn of the father then nothing would draw us to the Son .
The demonstration is the work of two. The father not seen working to empower the Son of man Jesus seen .
John 6 :45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
No Father, no Son .No Son, no Father. Can't have a new creation one without the other.
1. I am no liar about the statements about GOD. And GOD the FATHER, and HIS WORD is NO LIAR either! When you make a Statement like this, The TRUTH of GOD cannot be in you.
"The SON of GOD did not Create all Things That are CREATED" And please don't play me with words, for I am not the one! I don't play GOD! So please don't play me with "junk dog" jumbling of words, and "cheap" translations of "The Original Copied Manuscript" of The WORDS GOD has spoken.
I am not the one. If you feel like playing , go play with "Pliable" in the Kindergarten Corner.
2. You may fool others, but not me. Slipping in that dogmatic "Pig Slop" about who Jesus is and determining His character. As if HE is a "Subordinate" of ..........The FATHER and The SPIRIT of The LIVING GOD!
...........A. How can a piece of dirt, a corrupted creature called man, with a "Finite" mind understand What "GOD" is. FOR GOD is Not A Creature neither is ..................HIS SON For "GOD" and HIS SON" is "INCOMPREHENSIBLE" By a "Finite" mind Neither can a corrupted creature can explain "GOD The ...................FATHER'S BEING and His .EXISTENCE and HIS SON's BEING and HIS SON"S EXISTENCE. [ A Finite Mind trying to comprehend a being that is 100% human and 100% Deity] A BEING that at anytime can step in & out of HIS "DIVINITY INTO HUMANITY" any time HE PLEASES.
"The SON of GOD did not Create all Things That are CREATED"
Why? Why necessary? Everyone says that, but they never say why.
I'm always curious that the "why" is never answered.
Thanks,
Rhema
The question is, why was Jesus baptized? There have been some answers
offered but i would like to bring this up again for further consideration.
The question is, why was Jesus baptized?
And just how did that fulfill the ceremonial law?To fulfill the ceremonial law .
Jesus never said anything about Melchisedec.Jesus introducing the new kingdom of priest men and women after the order of Melchezedek ...
And just how did that fulfill the ceremonial law?
Rhema
Jesus never said anything about Melchisedec.
All that, and yet NOTHING which addressed the actual question.How? The shadow became sight according to the one promised outward demonstration.
Below are nine results of Jesus the Son of man from the tribe of Judah after the order of Melchisedec. John the Baptist the last of the old order it gave rise to John 3 :25 . Why Jesus from the tribe of Judah was performing the cerinimoinal law as a kingdom of priests all the nations of the world the promise of Joel
- Hebrews 5:6 As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
- Hebrews 5:10 Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.
- Hebrews 6:20 Whither the forerunner is for us entered, even Jesus, made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
- Hebrews 7:1For this Melchisedec,king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him;
- Hebrews 7:10 For he was yet in the loins of his father, when Melchisedec met him.
- Hebrews 7:11If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec,and not be called after the order of Aaron?
- Hebrews 7:15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
- Hebrews 7:17 For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
- Hebrews 7:21 (For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him, The Lord sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec:)
All that, and yet NOTHING which addressed the actual question.
Just how did Jesus baptism fulfill the ceremonial law?
And NO, Garee, Jesus did not write the book of Hebrews. Jesus said NOTHING about Melchisedec. If he did, then where in Matthew, Mark, Luke, or John is such recoreded. (It isn't.) In other words, you are truly putting words into Jesus' mouth. Not a good thing.
Rhema
So if Jesus didnt say it, its not true? Holy Spirit doesnt matter to you? Does it matter that Jesus never wrote anything that is recorded short of Him scribbling in the dirt? So its back to the Holy Spirit prompting the writers of the Gospel. That Holy Spirit is okay, but Paul didnt have it?All that, and yet NOTHING which addressed the actual question.
Just how did Jesus baptism fulfill the ceremonial law?
And NO, Garee, Jesus did not write the book of Hebrews. Jesus said NOTHING about Melchisedec. If he did, then where in Matthew, Mark, Luke, or John is such recoreded. (It isn't.) In other words, you are truly putting words into Jesus' mouth. Not a good thing.
Rhema
Then why did God institute the ceremony? Either the ceremony was not created by God, or you're saying that something God put in place had no value.Again the old testament shadow as a ceremony had no redeeming value .
This seems to change the purpose of water baptism from an outward sign of repentance to an outward sign of the anointing of the Holy Spirit. I'm not saying I disagree, but it would tend to show a VERY human characteristic of an understanding evolving or morphing from one thing into another. First an outward sign of sins being washed away, but then it changing into an outward sign where an anointing by water (baptism) is to show an anointing by the Holy Spirit, and so meanings shift and slide from one thing into another. This also happened when Christianity shifted from Jesus and Him resurrected (the Gospel of the early church) to Christ and Him crucified (a Pauline focus), after a re-interpretation of the Paschal Lamb was attributed to Jesus (a teaching that never came from Jesus' own lips).Water evaporates the work of the Holy Spirit does not. . . it abides with us in us .
Your interpretation. One I disagree with thoroughly. One can "metaphor" the meaning into nonsense if chewed upon too often.Water as used throughout the Bible it signifies the unseen work of the Holy Spirit just as literal blood .
All I see is you repeating yourself. And at this point we need to stop until you can answer... WHAT prophecy? Just what exact prophecy are you saying was fulfilled by the water baptism of Jesus? (And yes, I sure am asking you to post the scripture reference for that prophecy.)After he got wet to signify he had a desire to enter the new priesthood (Melchezedek.) by the power of the Holy Spirit it was necessary to fulfill the prophecy .
That would eliminate most if not all heresy, wouldn't it !!So if Jesus didnt say it, its not true?
Then truly what should one do with this verse?The issue is when a religious organization tries to elevate "water", as equal to the Blood of Jesus, by teaching that water saves you.
Br. Bear, sorry if I am dense this evening, but what "ceremony of purification"? I don't see a "ceremony of purification" in the text.The time came for Joseph and Mary to perform the ceremony of purification
I also don't see any "dedication". At a stretch, one might consider their actions as a declaration, in that every male is to be called holy to the Lord. Where in the OT is there any "dedication" ceremony described for such "calling"?“Every first-born male is to be dedicated to the Lord.”
Yes, this was for Mary. (cf. Lev 12:6-8)They also went to offer a sacrifice of a pair of doves or two young pigeons, as required by the law of the Lord.
It would be interesting to read the OT scripture about what this "to do for him (Jesus)" thing actually was.When the parents brought the child Jesus into the Temple to do for him what the Law required,
Was this passage a paraphrase? Might I ask which translation?Greetings Rhema and Garee
@Rhema @Garee
May i add something to this?