@bibleguy
The point is, His disciples did not have to eat on the sabbath day, right? It is only one day. They could fast a day if they had not prepared the day before the sabbath for their meals on the sabbath but they did not. Jesus being God would certainly has provided the food if He had so wanted to in order to prevent His disciples from doing work for their food that sabbath day.
But Jesus allowed it; because He was with them. Jesus is allowing YOU because He is in you and is with you always. That is how and why you are guiltless for profaning the sabbath. By profaning the sabbath, you are looking to Him His righteousness in bringing you Home; You are representing His righteousness apart from the law as being able to bring you Home even though you are profaning the sabbath.
As for James's faith without works; James was addressing the church's abuse of the poor in James 2nd chapter and it has nothing to do with faith in Jesus Christ. It has a lot to do with the church abuse of the poor where in one place, they would give a benediction to the poor "be warm and be filled" as if applying faith in God's Providence to the poor will make it happen. It is in the eyes of the poor, that the church's faith will not "profit" the poor nor "save" the poor. James referred to Abraham and Isaac of that well know Jewish story that left a name at that special place as Jehovah-Jireh which loosely translated as "God provides for His servants". That is the only kind of faith James was talking about in having works because the church was applying faith in God's providence to the poor to get our of helping the poor. James was calling that church out to lead by example by meeting the immediate needs of the poor after church service from what they had gathered from the bounty collected during service.
James was in no wise implying that faith in Jesus Christ has to come with works for salvation. James was just rebuking the church for their abuse and mistreatment of the poor if you read that whole chapter from the beginning of 2nd chapter.
Hi there!
You wrote: "The point is, His disciples did not have to eat on the sabbath day, right? It is only one day."
My response: Of course they did not HAVE TO eat on the sabbath. But that doesn't prove it was against Torah for them to do so.
Of course they could fast if they chose to do so, but that doesn't prove it was against Torah for them to eat on Sabbath.
Of course Jesus could miraculously provide food if He wanted to do so, but this doesn't prove it was against Torah for the disciples to eat on Sabbath.
You wrote: "But Jesus allowed it; because He was with them."
My response: Jesus does NOT allow sin! Jesus does NOT allow His disciples to disobey Torah. Jesus COMMANDS Torah-obedience (Mt. 5:19-20; 23:2-3,23,34).
The disciples were not permitted to eat on the Sabbath merely because "He was with them". Rather, they were permitted to eat on the Sabbath but Torah does not prohibit them from doing so, and it was good for them to do so.
You wrote: "Jesus is allowing YOU because He is in you and is with you always."
My response: Jesus does NOT allow sin! Jesus does NOT allow His disciples to disobey Torah. Jesus COMMANDS Torah-obedience (Mt. 5:19-20; 23:2-3,23,34).
Jesus does NOT allow me to disobey Lev. 11 (Dt. 14) merely beecause "He is in me and with me always".
After all, Peter APPLIES Lev. 11 to YOU! (1 Pe. 1:16)
You wrote: "That is how and why you are guiltless for profaning the sabbath."
My response: We are guiltless for profaning the Sabbath only if there is a higher Torah law which we are obeying which justifies the profaning.
Also, we could be guiltless for profaning the Sabbath if we profane in ignorance (after all, the Torah makes provision for sins committed in ignorance).
You wrote: :"By profaning the sabbath, you are looking to Him His righteousness in bringing you Home; You are representing His righteousness apart from the law as being able to bring you Home even though you are profaning the sabbath."
My response: Sure, IF you are looking to obey Jesus (who requires Torah), and IF some higher Torah law justifies profaning the Sabbath in some particular case, then sure, His righteousness is sufficient to bring us Home.
But that's no excuse to ignore the Torah Jesus commanded! (Mt. 23:2-3,23,34).
And that's no excuse to ignore your obligation to exhibit a GREATER measure of Torah-obedient righteousness than that exhibited by the corrupted Pharisees (Mt. 5:20). In fact, you MUST do better at Torah than the Pharisees, or else you will not inherit the forthcoming kingdom (Mt. 5:20).
You wrote: "James was addressing the church's abuse of the poor in James 2nd chapter and it has nothing to do with faith in Jesus Christ."
My response: Oops! Read James 2:1. It PROVES that James had faith in Jesus Christ in mind! You better retract your false claim that it "has nothing to do with faith in Jesus Christ".
You wrote: "James was in no wise implying that faith in Jesus Christ has to come with works for salvation."
My response: I disagree. FAITH IN JESUS CHRIST (Jas. 2:1) is DEAD (Jas. 2:17) if it "has no works" (Jas. 2:17). That's the context of the chapter. The issue of the poor people (or favoritism, or whatever) is simply an instantiation of this general principle.
PAUL opposes works without faith.
JAMES opposes faith without works.
What shall we do? BOTH! FAITH AND WORKS!
We shall do the SAME thing that ABRAHAM did! Abraham was righteous by FAITH (Ge. 15:6), AND Abraham obeyed the TORAHS (laws) available to him (Ge. 26:5).
Abraham obeyed Torah available to him (Ge. 26:5), and Jesus COMMANDS that we likewise do the WORKS of Abraham (Jn. 8:39).
Or do you oppose the Biblical Jesus who requires works? (Jn. 8:39; Mt. 5:19-20; 23:2-3,23,34)
You wrote: "James was just rebuking the church..."
My response: The CHURCH is ISRAEL! TORAH is given to Israel (Mal. 4:4). Torah is, thus, given to YOU.
blessings...