I agree, and I disagree with that DHC
I agree that scripture does not say that obedience to the law is what God requires of us. ....
.....I disagree that saying such is my theology.
I have repeated many many times, and it seems most here simply dont want to believe it, or think I am lying,so I will do so again it seems for your benefit, and may you please don't forget this....God first and foremost requires a relationship with His people. Eternal life is that we may know the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom the Father sent. (John 17:3) That is first. That is our priority. Jesus did not say "Keep the commandments". He said abide in Me. The result, the fruit, of that relationship is obedience to God's law.
God first and foremost desires we become like Jesus. (Romans 8:29) The result, the fruit, of becoming like Jesus is obedience to God's law.
God first and foremost desires that we love one another. And the result, the fruit of that love is the fulfilling of the law.
If (first) you love Me, (then) keep My commandments.
1 John 2:3,4 And hereby we do know that we know Him (first) , if we (then) keep His commandments.
He that saith "I know Him" and keepeth not His commandments is a liar and the truth is not in him.
Isa 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
Eph 5:9 (For the fruit of the Spirit is in all goodness and righteousness and truth;)
Hello Brakelite.
God first and foremost desires that we love one another.
That is correct Brakelite and you have the truth at this point.
Then you apply your sda bag of tricks and alter the concept of love itself.
Which you now declare in the next line.
And the result, the fruit of that love is the fulfilling of the law.
It is irrelevant that the scripture never says that we are under the ten commandments.
You even admit that this is true and this does frustrate you no doubt. Perhaps Brakelite
the reason that we are not told this is because it was never taught by the apostles.
For the SDA movement teaches that the phrase 'the law' means the ten commandments.
But sadly the SDA movement also teaches that the phrase 'the law' means the ceremonial law.
This is the tricky part of the whole legalist argument. Two meanings for the one phrase is
a well practiced methodology when reading the scripture.
Though the interpretation of the phrase varies from passage to passage throughout the
New Testament, this is acceptable and you have been taught to accept the dual meaning.
This double interpretation of
'the law' must be applied otherwise one is left without
'the law' Brakelite.
You are well aware that if you read the phrase as is, then the game is over.
So when Paul states 'But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under
the Law. (
Galatians 5:18)
Paul is actually saying 'But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the
ceremonial Law'.
When Paul states 'if
the Law had not said, “You shall not covet.”' (Romans 7:7)
Paul is really saying 'if
the ten commandments had not said, “You shall not covet.”'.
The problem is Brakelite '
the law' always means the same thing in the scripture.
Paul is not blundering in his usage of the phrase
'the law'. Paul is simply stating
what we already know that the Gentiles never had
'the law'. Nor were the Gentiles
ever to receive the law, or more succinctly a Gentile cannot be
under the law.
Here is the contradiction for you Brakelite, see if you can follow the logic.
Let's assume that the Gentile are not under the law, meaning they are not under the
ceremonial law
(Galatians 5:18). If this is the case then logically the Gentiles must be
under the ten commandments by default. Hence, we are left with no option now but that
the Gentiles are under the law anyway regardless of Paul. For the law is the ten commandments
and we know that the Gentiles are under the law. So contrary to Paul's initial statement the
Gentiles are under the law.
Why does Paul mishandle the phrase 'the law' throughout his letters?