I don't think that the Bible teaches that there will be a rapture. I believe Jesus is coming again in glory and that the dead will rise to glorified bodies.
The rapture seems to me to be an unnecessary appendage to all this, and not supported by scripture.
Is the Rapture in scripture? Yes or No? Yes and No?
The only verse I know of that does support a rapture is this one. How would you explain what is underlined, bolded, and colored.
For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent (precede) them which are asleep.
For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then we which are alive [and] remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. Wherefore comfort one another with these words.
Below is an explanation I thought worth sharing together...
It is commonly asserted that the word
rapture doesn’t appear in the Bible, and this absence is held forth as evidence that the teaching of the rapture is a falsehood. But this claim is untrue. The word
rapture does appear in the Bible. It appears in the exact same way that words like
angel and
apostle appear in the Bible.
Τhe word rapture is simply the anglicized form of the Greek word ̔αρπαζω (harpazō) that appears in 1 Thessalonians 4:17 in the original text.
To begin with, the English word
rapture is derived from the Latin participle
raptus from the verb
rapio. And Latin
rapio and Greek ̔αρπαζω (harpazō) are cognates —
they are the same word. Don’t be fooled by the superficial differences between Latin
rapio and Greek
harpazō. The -αζω (-azō) on the end of ̔αρπαζω (harpazō) is not part of the shared stem but a common Koine Greek verb ending. And the rough breather, the “h”, at the beginning, is not part of the shared stem either. The shared stem is simply “rap” —
rap in Latin and ρ-π (r-p) in Greek.
The fact is,
harpazō and
rapio belong to a class of Greek and Latin cognates where Greek adds an “h” to the shared stem. Another example from this class is Greek ̔ιστημι (histēmi) and Latin
sto. Here again, neither the “h” at the beginning nor the -μι (-mi) verb ending are part of the shared stem. The stem is
stē in Greek and
sto in Latin. And it is
sta in English, from whence we get words like
stand and
standard.
So we see that English rapture, Latin rapio, and Greek harpazō are cognates — they are the same word in different languages. But not only are they the same word, they have the same meaning. Anyone who has done a little reading from extra-biblical Greek and Latin, or has at least enough familiarity with those languages to use the classical Greek and Latin lexicons, is well aware of the fact that Greek ̔αρπαζω (harpazō) and Latin
rapio regularly bore the same sense of “
remove from harm’s way” that pretribulationists claim for the English word
rapture. It was regularly used by the mythologists of the gods snatching their favorites out of harm’s way. And it was regularly used in similar senses by the historical authors. I recently noted that Josephus used it of parents snatching their children up and running for cover when Titus sacked Jerusalem in 70 AD.
So the next time someone tries to educate you with the fictional-factoid that the word
rapture doesn’t appear in the Bible, just smile and point out that word
rapture does appear in the Bible in the exact same way that words like
angel,
apostle,
Messiah,
Christ,
Jesus,
baptism, and
apocalypse appear in the Bible.
The English word
rapture is the Greek word ̔αρπαζω (harpazō) in its anglicized form. And it would be just as legitimate to translate harpazō in 1 Thessalonians 4:17 by
rapture as it is to translate αγγελος (aggelos) by
angel.
“Then we who are alive and remain shall be raptured together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.”
“Eyes wide open, brain engaged, heart on fire.”
Lee W. Brainard