Welcome!

By registering with us, you'll be able to discuss, share and private message with other members of our community.

SignUp Now!
  • Welcome to Talk Jesus Christian Forums

    Celebrating 20 Years!

    A bible based, Jesus Christ centered community.

    Register Log In

Trinity

Status
Not open for further replies.
No. And I believe any well-educated Bible scholar would not agree either.

The use of the definite article ("the") in Koine Greek is one of the most perplexing issues in translation. Even Dr. Daniel Wallace of (the) Dallas Theological Seminary has stated in lecture that he still doesn't understand its application, after decades of reading Greek.

As a modern example, the Brits say, "I'm going to hospital," while the Yanks say, "I'm going to the hospital." What's the difference? None. It's parlance, or metre, or cultural colloquialism, an adaptation of style similar to a "linguistic accent." To now make some kind of supernatural or divine insight out of this is... a bit delusional. It stretches credulity. Oh I get the desire and the attempt to ferret out rules within linguistic expression, but who here hasn't ended a sentence with a preposition?

Rhema

Although you likely know this, I just wanted to mention that there is no Indefinite Article in Greek. The word "a" just isn't in the language. English differentiates between "a" (thing) and "the" (thing), but how can one make such a differentiation if both words aren't available? :confused:
Of course Wallace wouldn't understand it because it disagrees with what he's pushing - the same reason that trinitarian bibles say "the word was God".

Correct, there is no indefinite article but there is a definite article. That's why John left out the definite article in only one place in John 1:1, the second time he wrote god. This is how he wrote it: In beginning was "the" word, and "the" word was toward "the" God, and god was "the" Word. Notice that he used the definite article in every instant except the 2nd time he wrote god with reference to Jesus. That is the only way to show that Jesus was a god instead of the God since there was no indefinite article in Greek, but ion the Koine Greek there was an indefinite article and they used it to show, again, that Jesus was a god not the God. Pretty easy really if you just open your eyes and mind.
 
I shall see your Coptic to English translation, and raise you the Aramaic.

ܒܪܫܝܬ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܡܠܬܐ ܘܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ ܘܐܠܗܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ​
1 In the beginning there was The Miltha {The Word}, and He, The Miltha {The Word}, was with Alaha {God}. And Alaha {God} Himself was The Miltha {The Word}.​

Rhema



( :rolleyes: Let them figure out that colloquialism .... )
I don't know what your point is with this.

Aramaic doesn’t have the word ‘the,’ so the phrase ‘The God’ seen in Greek doesn’t exist in Aramaic. The word ‘a’ also does not exist in Aramaic, so the concept of ‘a’ is only implied by context. So in your translation with the word "The" is incorrect since there is no "the" in Aramaic.

History tells us that nobody believed that Jesus and his Father were one-and-the-same person in the late first century. So Aramaic speakers would have understood when ‘god’ meant God Almighty or some other god.
 
Greetings all,

One might wonder what the early Church folk/members would have thought, listening to [or reading] all the dialogue that goes on today.
Everyone being experts about them.

I wonder if they would be glad we have it right or would shake their heads in dis-blief or even laugh... or cry.

I wonder what our Father thinks?

Post in peace


Bless you ....><>
 
I shall see your Coptic to English translation, and raise you the Aramaic.

ܒܪܫܝܬ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܡܠܬܐ ܘܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ ܘܐܠܗܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ​
1 In the beginning there was The Miltha {The Word}, and He, The Miltha {The Word}, was with Alaha {God}. And Alaha {God} Himself was The Miltha {The Word}.​

Rhema



( :rolleyes: Let them figure out that colloquialism .... )
How about this one?

1 In the beginning there was The Miltha {The Word}, and it (not he) , The Miltha {The Word}, was with coming from Alaha {God} who is Spirit . And Alaha {God} Himself declared The Miltha {The Word}.
 
Greetings all,

One might wonder what the early Church folk/members would have thought, listening to [or reading] all the dialogue that goes on today.
Everyone being experts about them.

I wonder if they would be glad we have it right or would shake their heads in dis-blief or even laugh... or cry.

I wonder what our Father thinks?

Post in peace


Bless you ....><>
I wonder that too, but also wonder if they would want to crawl back in their graves if they could see the world today. Even my grandparents that died a mere 40 years ago would be shocked and for sure would think the end is in sight.
 
So you think I'm confused? That's funny. Did you even read what the KJV says? It's one of the translations I looked at and it also says "with God" in verse 1 and 2.
Why do you marvel at the fact that God’s Word was with him and is him? My word is with me and my word is me. When you speak and people hear you, they will know that the word they heard is you.

A Word is not a Son. Why is it that people suddenly forget what basic English words mean? There was no one in the beginning with God. Do you not therefore err because you know not the scriptures, nor the power of God? I speak this to your shame.

God’s Word is forever settled in heaven and it was made flesh and dwelt among us. As it is written:

I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
 
Why do you marvel at the fact that God’s Word was with him and is him? My word is with me and my word is me. When you speak and people hear you, they will know that the word they heard is you.

A Word is not a Son. Why is it that people suddenly forget what basic English words mean? There was no one in the beginning with God. Do you not therefore err because you know not the scriptures, nor the power of God? I speak this to your shame.

God’s Word is forever settled in heaven and it was made flesh and dwelt among us. As it is written:

I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.


Yes, Jesus the prophet our brother in the lord declaring the words of the father" I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.

That applies to us, the whosoever does the will empowered by the Father eternal Spirit . .

God is our Father. . not our born again brother. . .Jesus said. . marvel not.

Matthew 12:50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.

Mark 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother
 
Why do you marvel at the fact that God’s Word was with him and is him? My word is with me and my word is me. When you speak and people hear you, they will know that the word they heard is you.

A Word is not a Son. Why is it that people suddenly forget what basic English words mean? There was no one in the beginning with God. Do you not therefore err because you know not the scriptures, nor the power of God? I speak this to your shame.

God’s Word is forever settled in heaven and it was made flesh and dwelt among us. As it is written:

I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
Believe me, I don't marvel at any of your ramblings. Just answer the question if you can. Did you notice that the translation you so much admire also says that Jesus was with God in vs 1 and 2 ?
 
Believe me, I don't marvel at any of your ramblings. Just answer the question if you can. Did you notice that the translation you so much admire also says that Jesus was with God in vs 1 and 2 ?
As Jesus Christ said of your wicked brethren, vain man, so say I unto you.

Why do ye not understand my speech? Even because ye cannot hear my word. Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

Fill thou up then the measure of thy fathers, o fool and blind.
 
The end of the matter; all has been heard. Fear God and keep his commandments, for this is the whole duty of man. Ecclesiastes 12:13

There are two YHWH in the scripture of the OT
The Holy Spirit is not a third person of any Trinity, but the operative power of YHWH manifested to accomplish the will and purpose of YHWH in our world and with us humans.

To be a Spirit-filled Pentecostal Christian is to have both the 'Father' and the 'Son'
John 14:16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Helper, to be with you forever,
17 even the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him. You know him, for he dwells with you and will be in you.
20 In that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you.
21 Whoever has my commandments and keeps them, he it is who loves me. And he who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I will love him and manifest myself to him.”
23 Jesus answered him, “If anyone loves me, he will keep my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him.

Romans 8:9 You, however, are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if in fact the Spirit of God dwells in you. Anyone who does not have the Spirit of Christ does not belong to him.

1Peter 1:10 Concerning this salvation, the prophets who prophesied about the grace that was to be yours searched and inquired carefully,
11 inquiring what person or time the Spirit of Christ in them was indicating when he predicted the sufferings of Christ and the subsequent glories.

So even though I have God the Father and God the Son residing within me, yet I have this simply by the indwelling Spirit of God/Christ.
Perhaps we do not understand how the spiritual realm with two YHWH, spirit beings, gods, fantastic spirit creatures, thrones and domains - how this all really works ??
 
Last edited:
Now that we have solved the theology of is there a Trinity or not a Trinity
let us explain simply for all of us the other marvellous spiritual wonders of the spiritual realms -

Ezekiel 10:18 Then the glory of the LORD went out from the threshold of the house, and stood over the cherubim.
19 And the cherubim lifted up their wings and mounted up from the earth before my eyes as they went out, with the wheels beside them.
And they stood at the entrance of the east gate of the house of the LORD, and the glory of the God of Israel was over them.
20 These were the living creatures that I saw underneath the God of Israel by the Chebar canal; and I knew that they were cherubim.
21 Each had four faces, and each four wings, and underneath their wings the likeness of human hands.
22 And as for the likeness of their faces, they were the same faces whose appearance I had seen by the Chebar canal. Each one of them went straight forward.
 
Ezekiel 1:4 As I looked, behold, a stormy wind came out of the north, and a great cloud, with brightness around it, and fire flashing forth continually, and in the midst of the fire, as it were gleaming metal.
5 And from the midst of it came the likeness of four living creatures. And this was their appearance: they had a human likeness,
6 but each had four faces, and each of them had four wings.
7 Their legs were straight, and the soles of their feet were like the sole of a calf's foot. And they sparkled like burnished bronze.
8 Under their wings on their four sides they had human hands. And the four had their faces and their wings thus:
9 their wings touched one another. Each one of them went straight forward, without turning as they went.
10 As for the likeness of their faces, each had a human face. The four had the face of a lion on the right side, the four had the face of an ox on the left side, and the four had the face of an eagle.
11 Such were their faces. And their wings were spread out above. Each creature had two wings, each of which touched the wing of another, while two covered their bodies.

Anybody care to explain this with the confidence they have of knowing all about the nature of YHWH ??
Maybe Isiah's vision is easier to explain in natural terms ...

Isaiah 6:1 In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the train of his robe filled the temple.
2 Above him stood the seraphim. Each had six wings: with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew.
3 And one called to another and said: “Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory!”
4 And the foundations of the thresholds shook at the voice of him who called, and the house was filled with smoke.
5 And I said: “Woe is me! For I am lost; for I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips; for my eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts!”
6 Then one of the seraphim flew to me, having in his hand a burning coal that he had taken with tongs from the altar.
7 And he touched my mouth and said: “Behold, this has touched your lips; your guilt is taken away, and your sin atoned for.”
 
I shall see your Coptic to English translation, and raise you the Aramaic.

ܒܪܫܝܬ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܡܠܬܐ ܘܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ ܘܐܠܗܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ​
1 In the beginning there was The Miltha {The Word}, and He, The Miltha {The Word}, was with Alaha {God}. And Alaha {God} Himself was The Miltha {The Word}.​

Rhema



( :rolleyes: Let them figure out that colloquialism .... )
Hmm, I'm impressed, you seem quite knowledgeable and resourceful. Since you've got Aramaic, I'd like to ask about another verse in Aramaic - Matt. 1:16:

And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ

The critical word in question is "husband". I've heard that in the original Aramaic, the word for "husband" is actually "male guardian", and in the first century culture, if a woman is married, that's her husband; but if a woman is NOT married, then that's her father. The theory suggests, in Mary's case, she was only betrothed and not officially married when Jesus was conceived, so this Josepth might not be her husband, but in fact, her father. Also, that would fill in the "missing generation" of the 42 generations in total. I know this is kind of off topic, but I'd wanna know more on this.
 
So you think I'm confused? That's funny. Did you even read what the KJV says? It's one of the translations I looked at and it also says "with God" in verse 1 and 2.
Technically it doesn't say "with." μετά means "with." And I'll admit that the selection of "with" as an English gloss is rather perplexing. (And then everybody was too scared to fix it.)

Instead, the author chose to write the word "πρός" (followed by an accusative noun).

For those of you who like Strong's.... πρός PROS -
A strengthened form of G4253; a preposition of direction; forward to, that is, toward (with the genitive case the side of, that is, pertaining to; with the dative case by the side of, that is, near to; usually with the accusative case the place, time, occasion, or respect, which is the destination of the relation, that is, whither or for which it is predicated):​

And those accepting the Liddell Scott - here's a link

A. on the side of, in the direction of
With Accusative...​
A. III. of Relation between two objects,​
1. in reference to, in respect of, touching

The best one could say is "with regard to" if the word "with" needs to be used. However since THEOS can mean "the divine good," I submit a better translation for the consideration of the thread.

(John 1:1) The Pattern (λογος) was suffused throughout the cosmic protoplasm, and the Pattern was only of (PROS) the Divine Good, and Sovereign is the Pattern.​

The style of writing in John would be well recognized by other theologians like Philo, and one ought to understand that the vocabulary in John, such as ARXE and LOGOS, would reflect their definitions.

In addition to proclaiming that the LOGOS was suffused throughout (IN) everything around you (ARXE), John 1:1 also rejects Dualism that is found in Zoroastrianism and other religions by saying that the LOGOS is only of the Divine Good. That's what ο λογος ην προς τον θεον means.

Finally, when recognizing that THEOS also means "Sovereign," θεος ην ο λογος says exactly that without messing up the word order.

θεος (SOVERIGN) ην (IS) ο (THE) λογος (LOGOS).

A declaration that also refutes the Gnostic idea that the physical world is evil.

Rhema
(And there's no need to reply unless one has something of substance to say.)
 
Technically it doesn't say "with." μετά means "with." And I'll admit that the selection of "with" as an English gloss is rather perplexing. (And then everybody was too scared to fix it.)

Instead, the author chose to write the word "πρός" (followed by an accusative noun).

For those of you who like Strong's.... πρός PROS -
A strengthened form of G4253; a preposition of direction; forward to, that is, toward (with the genitive case the side of, that is, pertaining to; with the dative case by the side of, that is, near to; usually with the accusative case the place, time, occasion, or respect, which is the destination of the relation, that is, whither or for which it is predicated):​

And those accepting the Liddell Scott - here's a link

A. on the side of, in the direction of
With Accusative...​
A. III. of Relation between two objects,​
1. in reference to, in respect of, touching

The best one could say is "with regard to" if the word "with" needs to be used. However since THEOS can mean "the divine good," I submit a better translation for the consideration of the thread.

(John 1:1) The Pattern (λογος) was suffused throughout the cosmic protoplasm, and the Pattern was only of (PROS) the Divine Good, and Sovereign is the Pattern.​

The style of writing in John would be well recognized by other theologians like Philo, and one ought to understand that the vocabulary in John, such as ARXE and LOGOS, would reflect their definitions.

In addition to proclaiming that the LOGOS was suffused throughout (IN) everything around you (ARXE), John 1:1 also rejects Dualism that is found in Zoroastrianism and other religions by saying that the LOGOS is only of the Divine Good. That's what ο λογος ην προς τον θεον means.

Finally, when recognizing that THEOS also means "Sovereign," θεος ην ο λογος says exactly that without messing up the word order.

θεος (SOVERIGN) ην (IS) ο (THE) λογος (LOGOS).

A declaration that also refutes the Gnostic idea that the physical world is evil.

Rhema
(And there's no need to reply unless one has something of substance to say.)
I don't care about all the gobbledygook you just wrote. You said that they should throw out all bibles that translate John as "with God" and that the KJV was the superior translation. I guess you will now throw out your KJ bible? Just admit when you are wrong unless you think you know more than all the Bible translators and bible scholars. Maybe that is what you think.
 
There is no so called "trinity" in 1 John 5:7. Here is how the verse is written in the Word of God:

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
— (1 John 5:7).

Why is there three that bear record in heaven? Because:

"...In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established."
— (2 Corinthians 13:1).

And what is the record that these three bear in heaven of? This is the record:

"...That God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life."
— (1 John 5:11-12).

How did the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ bear record in heaven that God hath given to us eternal life? He did so when his Son:

"...Was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: and lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."
— (Matthew 3:16-17).

God the Father is the only true God. As his Son said:

"And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent."
— (John 17:3).

Why did the Word of God bear record in heaven? Because it is forever settled in heaven. As it is written:

"For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven."
— (Psalm 119:89).

The Word of God is:

"...Quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart."
— (Hebrews 4:12).

The Word of God has borne record in heaven from Genesis to Revelation that God hath given us eternal life. Wherefore, Jesus Christ said:

"...These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me."
— (Luke 24:44).

And God's Word was with him in the beginning and is him:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
— (John 1:1).

Contrary to popular belief, there was no co-equal God with him in the beginning. As the LORD of hosts said:

"...Is there a God beside me? Yea, there is no God; I know not any."
— (Isaiah 44:8).

And how did the Holy Ghost bear record in heaven? It was poured out from heaven when Jesus was glorified. As it is written:

"(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)"
— (John 7:39).

And the Spirit itself:

"...Beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: and if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together."
— (Romans 8:16-17).

Who is the Holy Ghost? He is the Almighty God. He is the Holy Father:

"And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are."
— (John 17:11).

And God is a Spirit:

"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth."
— (John 4:24).

God anointed Jesus Christ his Son:

"...With the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him."
— (Acts 10:38).

Wherefore, Jesus Christ called that Holy Spirit that was dwelling in him, his Father:

"Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works."
— (John 14:10).

It is therefore written in the scripture, that:

"...God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself..."
— (2 Corinthians 5:19).

It is therefore written concerning the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost that:

"...These three are one."
— (1 John 5:7).

Praise the Lord! He that is of God heareth God’s words.
 
I don't care about all the gobbledygook you just wrote. You said that they should throw out all bibles that translate John as "with God" and that the KJV was the superior translation. I guess you will now throw out your KJ bible? Just admit when you are wrong unless you think you know more than all the Bible translators and bible scholars. Maybe that is what you think.

Yes the only way it could make biblical sense is with God who is Spirit. The word was from God. He declared or prophesied "let there be" as the law of faith and as a labor of his love "it was good"

John 1 King James Version1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

The Word of prophecy was with God, the same Word came from God.

God is Spirit. God is light. God is love. .

He is not alphabet soup. (words without meaning or direction.) Pentecostal soup .

 
There is no so called "trinity" in 1 John 5:7. Here is how the verse is written in the Word of God:

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
— (1 John 5:7).

Why is there three that bear record in heaven? Because:

"...In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established."
— (2 Corinthians 13:1).

And what is the record that these three bear in heaven of? This is the record:

"...That God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life."
— (1 John 5:11-12).

How did the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ bear record in heaven that God hath given to us eternal life? He did so when his Son:

"...Was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: and lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."
— (Matthew 3:16-17).

God the Father is the only true God. As his Son said:

"And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent."
Why did the Word of God bear record in heaven? Because it is forever settled in heaven. As it is written:

"For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven."
— (Psalm 119:89).

The Word of God is:

"...Quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart."
— (Hebrews 4:12).

The Word of God has borne record in heaven from Genesis to Revelation that God hath given us eternal life. Wherefore, Jesus Christ said:

"...These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me."
— (Luke 24:44).

And God's Word was with him in the beginning and is him:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
— (John 1:1).

Contrary to popular belief, there was no co-equal God with him in the beginning. As the LORD of hosts said:

"...Is there a God beside me? Yea, there is no God; I know not any."
— (Isaiah 44:8).

And how did the Holy Ghost bear record in heaven? It was poured out from heaven when Jesus was glorified. As it is written:

"(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)"
— (John 7:39).

And the Spirit itself:

"...Beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: and if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together."
— (Romans 8:16-17).

Who is the Holy Ghost? He is the Almighty God. He is the Holy Father:

"And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are."
— (John 17:11).

And God is a Spirit:

"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth."
— (John 4:24).

God anointed Jesus Christ his Son:

"...With the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him."
— (Acts 10:38).

Wherefore, Jesus Christ called that Holy Spirit that was dwelling in him, his Father:

"Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works."
— (John 14:10).

It is therefore written in the scripture, that:

"...God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself..."
— (2 Corinthians 5:19).

It is therefore written concerning the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost that:

"...These three are one."
— (1 John 5:7).

Praise the Lord! He that is of God heareth God’s words.
I'm not going to go through every one of these with you but let's look a few to get a taste of what you put down:

The first one is 1 John 5:7 which is not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600"s which means it's spurious, which means it was added at that time and not part of the original writings. In other words it should not be in any translation. It's false.

After looking at everything else you said I don't think I'll waste any more time with you on this. The rest of it has either been covered here already or it has nothing at all to do with the subject of this thread. Sorry.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top