Contemporary Judaizers

[B-A-C]

Hebrews 12 is speaking about spiritual fornicator as you say.

If we go back to Gen 25; and read the story of Jacob and Esau, Esau gave up his inheritance (birthright) for a bowl of soup. He was hungry in his flesh.
How many of us are willing to give up our inheritance into the kingdom and joint heirs with Christ because of our fleshly hungers?

Some Bible say fornication here, others say sexual immorality. One thought is Deut 7:3; forbade intermarriage with non-Jews.
Some believe Gen 28:8; and Gen 36:2; to be this sexual immorality. Also it went against Abrahams wishes as well. ( Gen 24:3; )

 

[B-A-C]

There's nothing 'legal' about that commandment of Lev.19:18 to love one another, since Apostle Paul himself applied it as New Testament doctrine, as I have shown above. Your idea of legalism is just something made up.

I feel I have stated many times - obeying the 10 commandments will not get you to heaven.
What I have been trying to state is that God prefers that we do. The perception I get from you and Barny is that God prefers that we do not.
What God requires us to do, and what he wants us to do aren't always the same thing. Since we have free will, we don't always do what he wants.

The other perception here is that certain verses are split in half. For example 1 Jn 3:23; his commands are believe in Jesus and love one another.
Yet for some reason, only non-belief in Jesus is a sin, not loving one another is not a sin. Why?

Finally, it appears obeying the commandments are equated with dead works of the law. If this is true, how do the following verses apply?
Matt 5:19; Matt 19:17; John 14:15; John 14:21; John 15:10; 1 Cor 7:19; 1 Jn 2:3-4; 1 Jn 3:22-24; 1 Jn 5:2-3; 2 Jn 1:6; Rev 12:17; etc..

 

[B-A-C]

I find it interesting that the things mentioned Gal 5:19-21; are called spiritual sins, yet Gal 5:19; says these are the deeds of the flesh.
Eph 5:3-7; is similar. 1Cor 6:9-10; is also talking about earthly-fleshly sins. Indeed 1 Cor 6 starts off talking about arguments and law-suits between believers.
The things between man and God are spiritual; the things between man and man are fleshly.

 

[Barny]

- obeying the 10 commandments will not get you to heaven.

Agreed

What I have been trying to state is that God prefers that we do. The perception I get from you and Barny is that God prefers that we do not.

Both DHC and myself have have spoken of how our righteousness is not determined by the law. Our faith is counted for righteousness, Rom 4:5.

The argument we oppose is the claim that if one does not attain perfect obedience to the law, or even some lessor minimum standard, then such persons are lost.

BTW, in regards to behavior/lifestyles, Christians often do improve in that regard. Just because we don't determine our righteousness by deeds of the law does not mean that we therefore want to indulge in a selfish life of debauchery because we don't have the law hanging over our heads anymore.

the other perception here is that certain verses are split in half. For example 1 Jn 3:23; his commands are believe in Jesus and love one another.
Yet for some reason, only non-belief in Jesus is a sin, not loving one another is not a sin. Why?

our faith is counted for righteousness when we believe on Jesus.
Remember all unrighteousness is sin, 1John 5:17.


I'll get back to your other question later as I'm off to work now.

 

[DHC]

I feel I have stated many times - obeying the 10 commandments will not get you to heaven.
What I have been trying to state is that God prefers that we do. The perception I get from you and Barny is that God prefers that we do not.
What God requires us to do, and what he wants us to do aren't always the same thing. Since we have free will, we don't always do what he wants.

The other perception here is that certain verses are split in half. For example 1 Jn 3:23; his commands are believe in Jesus and love one another.
Yet for some reason, only non-belief in Jesus is a sin, not loving one another is not a sin. Why?

Finally, it appears obeying the commandments are equated with dead works of the law. If this is true, how do the following verses apply?
Matt 5:19; Matt 19:17; John 14:15; John 14:21; John 15:10; 1 Cor 7:19; 1 Jn 2:3-4; 1 Jn 3:22-24; 1 Jn 5:2-3; 2 Jn 1:6; Rev 12:17; etc..

Yes B-A-C, the ten commandments will deliver the sentence of death. Before Christ the ten commandments
could not be obeyed by anyone. Hence B-A-C, the ten commandments delivered the death stroke to everyone.

Then you said;

What I have been trying to state is that God prefers that we do.

Well what is it that God prefers that we do B-A-C?

As I asked you before B-A-C, the real issue is the deeds of the flesh. We do not want to be
found living by these deeds when Christ returns, do we B-A-C. Since you follow the idea
that a Christian must obey the ten commandments. Can you explain to me how the deeds
of the flesh that Paul lists below are covered by the ten commandments.

Galatians 5
19 Now the deeds of the flesh are evident, which are: immorality, impurity, sensuality,
20 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousy, outbursts of anger, disputes, dissensions,
factions, 21 envying, drunkenness, carousing.

Because B-A-C, if all these deeds are not eliminated by obedience to the ten commandments
then your goose is cooked.

 

[DHC]

Hello DHC, on the matter of righteousness as a gift: righteousness is not a gift, it is Christ who is the gift.

Hello James.

'who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness'. (Romans 5:17)

Paul calls righteousness a gift.

 

[DHC]

I'm sorry to say, but you're simply deluded and you err greatly not understanding the Scriptures.

II Jn 1:5-6
5 And now I beseech thee, lady, not as though I wrote a new commandment unto thee, but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another.
6 And this is love, that we walk after His commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.
(KJV)

Hello NoHype.

Thank you for the kind and encouraging words NoHype.

Your first quotation has an interesting line and I wonder how you interpret this line.

'but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another'

Is John referring to the 'beginning' as being Mt Sinai?

Or is John referring to the 'beginning' as when Jesus arrived?

 

[james1523]

Hello James.

'who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness'. (Romans 5:17)

Paul calls righteousness a gift.

The Bible also says Christ is our righteousness. Therefore it is Christ our righteousness who is the gift. There is no transfer or reckoning of His righteousness to our own righteousness, via impartation or imputation. Righteousness is not a standalone thing that can be taken from one person and given or reckoned to another. This is protestant heresy. The Bible says we are clothed with Christ our righteousness, not clothed with the righteousness of Christ. It has nothing to do with imputing or imparting - we either keep the law perfectly because of Christ our righteousness, or we fail to keep the law when we turn to the self i.e. self-righteousness.

 

[Barny]

Hebrews 12 is speaking about spiritual fornicator as you say. Hebrews 10:26 onwards is about Christians forsaking the church assembly and going back to Judaism. But this does not mean that everytime the word fornication is mentioned, it refers to spiritual fornication

.

As you can see the spiritual fornication Heb 12:16 speaks of, can you also see the spiritual fornication 1Cor 5 speaks of?

Heb 10:26 onwards is referring to turning back to the law for righteousness by works. I guess you could call this going back to Judaism if you refer to their desire to be under the law.

1 John 4, the false prophets, who denied the incarnation, are Gnostics.

1John 4 does not mention "Gnostics". It's better if we try to base our language on scripture to avoid confusion.

I've heard Gnostics being described in various different ways, but none of them have any relevance to 1John 1 as you suggested.

 

[Barny]

it appears obeying the commandments are equated with dead works of the law. If this is true, how do the following verses apply?
Matt 5:19; Matt 19:17; John 14:15; John 14:21; John 15:10; 1 Cor 7:19; 1 Jn 2:3-4; 1 Jn 3:22-24; 1 Jn 5:2-3; 2 Jn 1:6; Rev 12:17; etc..

Hi B-A-C,

Our debate has always centered on whether obedience to the law has any part to play in our salvation. I've seen continuously on forums some who claim that although we're saved by grace and not by works of the law, we are still to do works of the law to confirm our righteousness/salvation. Such doctrines are a contradiction. They say we are not saved through works of the law, but we are required to do works of the law to show that we're saved. Such doctrines are really saying that Christ's sacrifice was not enough to take away sin and was therefore the same as the yearly sacrifices that also could not take away sin, Heb 10:1,2

Regarding the scriptures you quoted:
Matt 5:19 This was before Christ's sacrifice. Jesus did and taught the commandments as was required under the law. It is his righteousness/holiness that God sees in us.
Matt 19:17 Again this was before the cross. Note verse 20 where the young man who had kept the commandments said "What do I still LACK?"
Also note verse 21 "if you want to be perfect (Heb 10:14).....come follow me". Here Jesus shared the gospel with the young man, which is the only way for mankind to attain righteousness/holiness/perfection (as righteousness by works of the law would never work for mankind)

John 14:21, John 15:10, 1Cor 7:19, 1John 2:3,4. 1John 3:22,23, 1John 5:2,3. 2John 1:6. Christians keep his commandments. Believe on Jesus and love one another , 1John 3:22,23.

B-A-C, you had previously referred to the law ( which includes the 10 commandments) and argued that a certain unspecified level of obedience to it was required or else we're proving that we're not righteous and therefore lost.
James1523 goes even further saying that perfect obedience to the law is required.

Both these views contradict the gospel of grace where our faith is counted for righteousness, Rom 4:5.

 

[Barny]

If we go back to Gen 25; and read the story of Jacob and Esau, Esau gave up his inheritance (birthright) for a bowl of soup. He was hungry in his flesh.
How many of us are willing to give up our inheritance into the kingdom and joint heirs with Christ because of our fleshly hungers?

FLESHLY hunger = DRUNK with the WINE of FORNICATION, Rev 17:1,2.

the recurring warning in scripture is do not turn back to the law for righteousness by works. Do not even mix works of the law with grace. To do so is fornication with Hagar, which is unbelief and walking according to the flesh.

 

[james1523]

As you can see the spiritual fornication Heb 12:16 speaks of, can you also see the spiritual fornication 1 Cor 5 peaks of?

Heb 10:26 onwards is referring to turning back to the law for righteousness by works. I guess you could call this going back to Judaism if you refer to their desire to be under the law.

1 Cor 5 does not speak of spiritual fornication, It deals with actual sexual immorality within the church, and the particular case of a man involved with incest: It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and of a kind that is not tolerated even among pagans, for a man has his father's wife.2 And you are arrogant! Ought you not rather to mourn? Let him who has done this be removed from among you.

Hebrews 10 does not only speak about spiritual fornication, it also means that actual sexual fornication can result in us losing our inheritance, like Esau. 1 Cor 6:9 "9 Do you not know that the unrighteous and the wrongdoers will not inherit or have any share in the kingdom of God?"

So to summarize, Hebrews 10 has a spiritual (regarding the law) and physical (regarding sin) meaning. But 1 Cor 5 only has physical meaning.

 

[Barny]

1 Cor 5 does not speak of spiritual fornication, It deals with actual sexual immorality within the church, and the particular case of a man involved with incest.

Whilst I agree physical sexual immorality (incest, fornication, adultery, homosexuality, etc) is wrong, especially for Christians who should know better, I disagree with your claim that scripture such as 1Cor 5 refers to physical sexual immorality.

1Cor 5:1
It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and such sexual immorality as is not even named among the Gentiles—that a man has his father’s wife!

In my earlier posts I shared how Christians are married to Christ. Being married to Christ and saved by grace, Christians should not therefore fornicate with the alternative, who is Hagar (symbolic for righteousness by works of the law, Gal 4:24.).

So who is the "father" and who is his "wife" that 1Cor 5:1 speaks of?
No doubt you already saw my earlier post answering this.

The "wife" that 1Cor 5:1 refers to is Hagar/righteousness by works of the law.
The "father" is the devil, as Jesus described to the Pharisees in John 8:44.

Satan wants to bring us under the law for righteousness by works. He wants us to fornicate with his wife, Hagar. He wants us to not submit to God's righteousness and instead to establish our own righteousness.

Note 1Cor 5:6,7.
Your glorying is not good. Do you not know that a little leaven leavens the whole lump? Therefore purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, since you truly are unleavened. For indeed Christ, our Passover, was sacrificed for us

Nobody ever glories about physical incest with one's father's wife. Yet here we see Corinthians are allegedly glorying in it, according to your view.

But, if we see it as spiritual fornication, then we see the glorying comes from being under the law (fornication with Hagar) establishing one's own righteousness instead of submitting to the righteousness of God (Rom 10:3).

And note it speaks of "leaven" in reference to fornication.
What is "leaven"?
Jesus tells us in Matt 16:11,12
How is it that ye do not understand that I spake it not to you concerning bread, that ye should beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees?
Then understood they how that he bade them not beware of the leaven of bread, but of the doctrine of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees.

Jesus warns about the leaven/doctrine of the Pharisees and Sadducees, which is the doctrine of righteousness by works of the law (which is symbolically described as Hagar, Gal 4:24).

Thus we see confirmation in the reference to "leaven" (the doctrine of righteousness by works of the law) in 1Cor 5:7, that its spiritual fornication with Hagar that is the subject of 1Cor 5.

Note also 1Cor 5:8
I have written unto you not to keep company, if any man that is called a brother be a fornicator, or covetous, or an idolator, or a railer, or a drunkard, or an extortioner; with such an one no not to eat.

Also note 1Cor 5:13
Therefore put away from among yourselves that wicked person.

If we read this chapter in physical terms, as you suggest, then we see your doctrine saying that Christians are not to associate with physical fornicators, physical drunkards, etc, and that we should throw such persons out of the church. We also see in this chapter 5 that such persons are described as being unbelievers.

I can see that with such doctrines focusing on physical perspectives, that you expect perfect obedience not only to the law but even to all the things that the law neglected to include (such as physical drunkeness). Such doctrines clearly contradict the gospel of grace. Such doctrines differ little to what the Pharisees taught.

But, if we see it from the spiritual perspective then it flows much better.
Fornication with the "father's wife" is spiritual fornication with the devil's wife, who is Hagar (symbolic for righteousness by works of the law, Gal 4:24)
Purge out the old leaven, means purge out any doctrine (leaven, Matt 16:12), of righteousness by works of the law.
Those preaching doctrines (leaven) of righteousness by works of the law are fornicating with the devil's wife (Hagar) and they're DRUNK with the WINE of her fornication, Rev 17:1,2.
Those under grace should not associate with anybody who preaches doctrines (leaven) of righteousness by works of the law. We should not tolerate such spiritual drunkards/fornicators in the church.

James, I'm curious with regard to your physical focus on scripture, do you exclude anyone from the church fellowship you go to if they are not perfect in keeping the law and all the other issues that it missed, which you allege were added later (such as drunkeness)?

So to summarize, Hebrews 10 has a spiritual (regarding the law) and physical (regarding sin) meaning. But 1 Cor 5 only has physical meaning.

Heb 10:26 refers to the spiritual fornicators, spiritually drunk with the spiritual wine of fornication.
if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,

How does one sin wilfully?

To start with, consider that Jesus set Christians free from sin, John 8:36.
Christians have "ceased from sin", 1Pet 4:1.Christians "cannot sin", 1John 3:9
Christians cannot be charged with sin when we are under grace and thus justified by God.
Rom 8:33
Who shall lay any thing (this includes sin) to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth

So how does one sin willfully after having the knowledge of the truth of the gospel of Christ?.
Answer: You turn back to the law for righteousness by works. In other words you fornicate with Hagar, getting drunk with the wine of fornication..
Note Gal 2:18.
if I build again the things which I destroyed (righteousness by works of the law) , I make myself a transgressor /SINNER.

Remember that whatever the law says it says to those under it, Rom 3:19
So anyone who turns back to the law, fornicating with Hagar, bring themselves under the law and thus will be charged as a transgressor/Sinner, as they will fail to keep the law perfectly.
And anyone who turns to the law to determine righteousness (even so called "ïmparted" righteousness ) or even mixes it with grace, is therefore rejecting Christ's finished work on the cross. Such are in the sin of unbelief as you cannot mix grace with works of the law, Rom 11:6

 

[B-A-C]

You turn back to the law for righteousness by works. In other words you fornicate with Hagar, getting drunk with the wine of fornication..

Hmm.. did Hagar/Ishmael "turn back to the law"? Since Hagar and Ishmael weren't Jews, were they under the law?
The lineage of the Jews went through Isaac and Jacob into the 12 tribes.
The Arabs believe they are the sons of Ishmael, (the uncanonized book of Jubilees written a bout 100-200 BC ) calls the Arabs the sons of Ishmael or the Ishmaelites.

Would the Arabs ( Gentiles? ) be under the law?

 

[Barny]

Hmm.. did Hagar/Ishmael "turn back to the law"? Since Hagar and Ishmael weren't Jews, were they under the law?
The lineage of the Jews went through Isaac and Jacob into the 12 tribes.
The Arabs believe they are the sons of Ishmael, (the uncanonized book of Jubilees written a bout 100-200 BC ) calls the Arabs the sons of Ishmael or the Ishmaelites.

Would the Arabs ( Gentiles? ) be under the law?

Scripture often speaks of things symbolically. Hagar is just one example.

Gal 4:21-26
tell me, you who desire to be under the law, do you not hear the law? For it is written that Abraham had two sons: the one by a bondwoman, the other by a freewoman. But he who was of the bondwoman was born according to the flesh, and he of the freewoman through promise, which things are SYMBOLIC. For these are the two covenants: the one from Mount Sinai which gives birth to bondage, which is Hagar— for this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia, and corresponds to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children— but the Jerusalem above is free, which is the mother of us all.

Whether the Arabs are truly descendants from Ishmael, I don't know. But the Arabs do need to hear the gospel, as without Christ they are lost.

 

[B-A-C]

Whether the Arabs are truly descendants from Ishmael, I don't know. But the Arabs do need to hear the gospel, as without Christ they are lost.

Perhaps they are not Arabs. But they are not Jews, so they would be Gentiles. Can Gentiles be under the law?

 

[james1523]

Whilst I agree physical sexual immorality (incest, fornication, adultery, homosexuality, etc) is wrong, especially for Christians who should know better, I disagree with your claim that scripture such as 1 Cor 5 efers to physical sexual immorality.

I understand the spiritual meaning of adultery concerning Christians being married to Christ rather than the law.
But I do not understand what the spiritual meaning of incest is, as per 1 Cor 5:1, what is your answer? Or the spiritual meaning of homosexuality?
A Christian can commit spiritual adultery by turning to the law and away from Christ.
But how does a Christian commit spiritual incest or homosexuality against Christ?

 

[james1523]

James, I'm curious with regard to your physical focus on scripture, do you exclude anyone from the church fellowship you go to if they are not perfect in keeping the law and all the other issues that it missed, which you allege were added later (such as drunkeness)?

Yes people are treated as unbelievers because that is what the bible says to do, and in doing so we have God's blessing and protection.
Matt 18:17 "If he also ignores the congregation, regard him as an unbeliever".
What about your church?

 

[Barny]

Perhaps they are not Arabs. But they are not Jews, so they would be Gentiles. Can Gentiles be under the law?

There are 2 different paths to righteousness.
1: Our faith is counted for righteousness, Rom 4:5. This is the path Christians choose, therefore we're not under the law for righteousness, Rom 10:4, Rom 8:2, Gal 5:18, Gal 3:24, 1Tim 1:9
OR
2: Righteousness by works of the law. Legalists choose this path, even if they mix it with grace. Non-believers (even though they may reject the law) have only got righteousness by works of the law as their measure for righteousness as they have rejected the alternative of righteousness by faith.

A Gentile is a non-believer.
Christians are spiritual Jews. We are true Jews who have had circumcision of the heart, Rom 2:29.

To enter into the kingdom of Heaven one must be righteous, holy, perfect. Christians have this, in Christ. Our life is hid with Christ in God, Col 3:3.
Our faith is counted for righteousness.
Rom 4:5
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.

Christ's sacrifice has made us holy and perfected us.
Heb 10:10.
By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

Heb 10:14
For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

The Gentiles (non-believers) do not have this.
Gentiles may not be under the law but as the law is the measure of righteousness, then they will be judged by the law as they have rejected the only other means to attain righteousness.

Rev 20:12-15"
And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books (of the law) were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life (Jesus Christ): and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works.
And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works.
And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.
And whosoever was not found written in the book of life ( Jesus Christ) was cast into the lake of fire.

Note that it says "and they were judged every man according to their works.

A Christian's works that shows our faith is that we believe on Jesus, John 6:29
It's Christ's righteousness, holiness, perfection, that covers us. Our life is hid with Christ in God, Col 3:3.

But for the Gentiles (non-believers) their "DEAD WORKS" works (whether they choose to be under the law or not) will fail the measure by which righteousness is determined (the law).

 

[james1523]

Heb 10:26 refers to the spiritual fornicators, spiritually drunk with the spiritual wine of fornication.
if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,

How does one sin wilfully?

To start with, consider that Jesus set Christians free from sin, John 8:36.
Christians have "ceased from sin", 1 Pet 4:1Christians "cannot sin", 1 John 3:9
Christians cannot be charged with sin when we are under grace and thus justified by God.
Rom 8:33
Who shall lay any thing (this includes sin) to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth

So how does one sin willfully after having the knowledge of the truth of the gospel of Christ?.
Answer: You turn back to the law for righteousness by works. In other words you fornicate with Hagar, getting drunk with the wine of fornication..
Note Gal 2:18.
if I build again the things which I destroyed (righteousness by works of the law) , I make myself a transgressor /SINNER.

Remember that whatever the law says it says to those under it, Rom 3:19
So anyone who turns back to the law, fornicating with Hagar, bring themselves under the law and thus will be charged as a transgressor/Sinner, as they will fail to keep the law perfectly.
And anyone who turns to the law to determine righteousness (even so called "ïmparted" righteousness ) or even mixes it with grace, is therefore rejecting Christ's finished work on the cross. Such are in the sin of unbelief as you cannot mix grace with works of the law, Rom 11:6

Christians can still sin because 1 John 1:9 says If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. So clearly, Christians can still be unrighteous and so they need to confess their sins to be made righteous again.

What is unrighteousness? It is committing sin by breaking the law (1 John 3:4).

1 John 3 Behold what manner of love the Father has bestowed on us, that we should be called children of God!Therefore the world does not know us,because it did not know Him.
- we are called children of God

2 Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is.
- we are called children of God but are not yet like Him completely

3 And everyone who has this hope in Him purifies himself, just as He is pure.
- to purify ourselves is to practice righteousness by obeying the law(verse 7)

4 Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness.
- sin is breaking the moral law of God, known as lawlessness

5 And you know that He was manifested to take away our sins, and in Him there is no sin.
- Christ takes away our sin

6 Whoever abides in Him does not sin. Whoever sins has neither seen Him nor known Him.
- If we abide in Him we do not sin, because in Christ there is no sin (verse 5). This is conditional upon us walking in fellowship with Christ and remaining in Him as per Christ's command (John 15:4)
1 John 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin.

What is the light? The light is His Word, and the law : Ps 119:105 Thy word is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path
Prov 6:23 For the commandment is a lamp; and the law is light; and reproofs of instructionare the way of life:

7 Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous.
- He who practices righteousness is righteous. This is clear that he who obeys the moral law practices righteousness and is righteous.

8 He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has sinned from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that He might destroy the works of the devil.
- He who breaks the law continually is of the devil (verse 4), because a believer has God's seed and cannot sin (verse 9).

9 Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God.
-Not sin means that we do not live in sin continually. A believer may fall into sin occasionally, but God's life in him will not allow him to live in sin continually.

John also says in 1 John 1:8 "If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.". If we deny the indwelling sin in our nature, we deceive ourselves.

The antinomian heresy says that Christians only have to believe in Christ and don't have to keep God's moral law.

But genuine Christian doctrine says that Christians have to believe in Christ, and abide in Christ by walking in the light and fellowship with Him, by which God's seed (the Spirit of life) within them will ensure they do not continue in sin by breaking God's moral law. Because of indwelling sin, they may fall occasionally by breaking God's moral law, resulting in unrighteousness, then they must confess their sin to be cleansed of their unrighteousness.

Hence John's warning - he who practices righteousness, is righteous. Not, "He who believes in Christ, is righteousness whether they keep the law or not".